ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
the antidote for Warfarin is?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. Therefore, the antidote for Warfarin overdose or to reverse its effects is vitamin K. Vitamin K helps in replenishing the depleted vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, allowing the blood to clot normally again. Administering vitamin K helps in reversing the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, preventing excessive bleeding or hemorrhage.
Question 2 of 9
A neighbor tells nurse Maureen he has to have surgery and is reluctant to have any blood product transfusions because of a fear of contracting an infection. He asks the nurse what are his options. The nurse teaches the person that the safest blood product is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An autologous blood product is the safest option for the neighbor who is reluctant to have blood transfusions due to a fear of contracting an infection. Autologous blood is blood that is donated by the patient themselves prior to surgery. This type of blood product eliminates the risk of transmitting infections from other donors, as the blood comes from the patient's own body. It is considered the safest option for those concerned about infection transmission during blood transfusions.
Question 3 of 9
A client is prescribed clonidine (Catapres) for hypertension. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clonidine, an alpha-2 agonist, lowers BP but risks rebound hypertension if stopped abruptly. Tapering off shows understanding, preventing this danger. Stopping if normal or extra doses risk instability. Chewing isn't advised'oral absorption suffices. Tapering aligns with clonidine's withdrawal risk, critical in hypertension management, making C the statement of effective teaching.
Question 4 of 9
Antihistamines block the actions of histamine at the
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antihistamines for allergies (e.g., diphenhydramine) target H1 receptors , blocking histamine's effects like itching or sneezing. B1 and B2 receptors (choices B, C) involve adrenergic responses (e.g., heart rate, bronchodilation), unrelated to histamine. C1 isn't a recognized receptor. H1 blockade is the mechanism for allergy relief, making choice A correct, reflecting antihistamines' specific pharmacological action critical for nurses to understand.
Question 5 of 9
The goal of androgen therapy in men is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Androgen therapy in men, typically testosterone replacement, aims to boost libido and treat erectile dysfunction by restoring normal androgen levels, countering hypogonadism's effects like reduced sexual drive. Decreasing libido contradicts its purpose, as low testosterone already dims desire. It doesn't release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)-exogenous androgens may suppress FSH and LH via feedback inhibition. Increasing luteinizing hormone (LH) isn't the goal; therapy bypasses LH by directly providing testosterone. Raising libido aligns with correcting symptoms of androgen deficiency, improving quality of life and sexual function, a primary clinical indication supported by its action on androgen receptors in sexual tissues.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following agents if taken in overdose by a depressed patient is most likely to result in a fatal outcome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Overdose fatality depends on toxicity and mechanism. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), blocks sodium channels and muscarinic receptors, causing lethal arrhythmias, seizures, and anticholinergic effects (LD50 ~13 mg/kg), making it highly fatal. Fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, and citalopram, all SSRIs, primarily cause serotonin syndrome or seizures, but lethality is lower (e.g., citalopram's QT risk is less immediate). TCAs' cardiotoxicity far exceeds SSRIs', driving amitriptyline's higher fatality rate, a critical factor in prescribing for depression with suicide risk.
Question 7 of 9
What patient history would the nurse recognize as a contraindication for beginning Niacin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gout is a metabolic disorder characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood, which can be exacerbated by niacin therapy. Niacin can increase uric acid levels, potentially leading to gout flare-ups in patients with a history of gout. Therefore, a history of gout would be recognized as a contraindication for beginning Niacin therapy.
Question 8 of 9
A 9-year-old boy is sent for neurologic evaluation because of episodes of apparent inattention. Over the past year, the child has experienced episodes during which he develops a blank look on his face and his eyes blink for 15 seconds. He immediately resumes his previous activity. Which one the following best describes this patient's seizures?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Absence seizures, typical in childhood, feature brief (10-20 second) lapses in awareness with staring and eye blinking, followed by immediate resumption of activity, as described. Simple partial seizures preserve consciousness with focal symptoms (e.g., twitching). Complex partial seizures impair awareness longer, with automatisms. Tonic-clonic seizures involve convulsions. Myoclonic seizures cause jerks without staring. The short duration, blank look, and rapid recovery align with absence seizures' EEG pattern (3 Hz spike-and-wave), distinguishing it here.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following receptor-ligand pathway is TRUE:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin acts via tyrosine kinase receptors, not G-protein-coupled receptors, so that's false. Mineralocorticoids (e.g., aldosterone) bind intracellular receptors, not tyrosine kinase, making that incorrect. Vitamin D binds intracellular nuclear receptors, regulating gene transcription, a true statement and the correct pathway. Adrenaline acts via G-protein-coupled adrenergic receptors, not ligand-gated channels, so that's false. Platelet-derived growth factor uses tyrosine kinase, not cytokine receptors. Vitamin D's intracellular action is key to its role in calcium homeostasis, distinguishing it from membrane-bound receptor mechanisms.