The antibiotics penicillin and cephalosporin are produced by:

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microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The antibiotics penicillin and cephalosporin are produced by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: fungi. Both penicillin and cephalosporin are produced by certain species of fungi. Penicillin is derived from the Penicillium fungi, while cephalosporin is produced by Cephalosporium fungi. Fungi have the ability to synthesize these antibiotics as part of their defense mechanisms against other microorganisms. Algae (A), slime molds (B), and protozoans (D) do not have the capability to produce antibiotics like penicillin and cephalosporin. Algae are mainly photosynthetic organisms, slime molds are protists that lack the ability to synthesize complex antibiotics, and protozoans are single-celled eukaryotic organisms that do not produce antibiotics like fungi do.

Question 2 of 9

A patient with diarrhea had fecal analysis revealing small, curved Gram-negative bacilli with a monotrichous flagellum. These bacteria do not form spores or capsules and thrive in alkaline conditions. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Small, curved Gram-negative bacilli with a monotrichous flagellum point towards a motile bacterium. Step 2: The absence of spores or capsules and preference for alkaline conditions further narrows down the possibilities. Step 3: Vibrio cholerae fits all criteria as it is a curved, motile, Gram-negative bacillus that thrives in alkaline environments. Summary: Escherichia coli is a facultative anaerobe, Salmonella and Shigella are non-flagellated, and all of them can form capsules or spores, unlike Vibrio cholerae.

Question 3 of 9

On the 8th day since the patient was inoculated with antitetanic serum because of dirty wound of his foot he has developed rising temperature up to 380% , pains in the joints, rash and itch. The blood tests revealed leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Allergic reaction of what type has developed in this case?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunocomplex. In this case, the patient's symptoms of fever, joint pains, rash, and itch along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia indicate a serum sickness reaction. This is a type III hypersensitivity reaction where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. The symptoms typically occur 1-2 weeks after exposure to the antigen. Anaphylactic reaction (choice A) is immediate and involves IgE antibodies. Cytotoxic reaction (choice B) involves destruction of cells by antibodies. Delayed hypersensitivity (choice C) usually takes 48-72 hours to develop and involves T-cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the symptoms and timeline of a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

Question 4 of 9

Microorganisms of various species are often organized into complex communities on a surface and are called __________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: biofilms. Biofilms are structured communities of microorganisms that adhere to a surface and are embedded in a matrix. This is the most appropriate term as it specifically describes the organization of various species into complex communities on a surface. Colonies (A) refer to groups of cells of the same species, not necessarily multiple species. Ecosystems (C) are broader systems involving interactions between living organisms and their environment. Plagues (D) are outbreaks of disease, not a term used to describe organized microbial communities.

Question 5 of 9

Which one is true for the bacterial cell?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Multiplies by binary fission. Bacterial cells reproduce through binary fission, where a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells. This process is essential for bacterial growth and multiplication. A: The oxidative phosphorylation does not take place in the mitochondria of bacterial cells but in the cell membrane. B: Capsules are not organelles but outer protective layers found in some bacterial cells. C: Bacterial cells contain both DNA and RNA, essential for their genetic information and protein synthesis.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following statements for measles is NOT true?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Negri bodies are not associated with measles but with rabies. Step 1: Measles is a childhood infection with a rash (A). Step 2: Koplik spots are small white spots on a red base found inside the mouth and are characteristic of measles (B). Step 3: Negri bodies are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions found in neurons infected with rabies virus, not measles (C). Step 4: Prophylaxis for measles is through the MMR vaccine, which is a live attenuated vaccine (D). Therefore, choice C is incorrect as it does not pertain to measles.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following viruses belong to family Arenaviridae?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Arenaviridae family includes viruses with a segmented genome. 2. Lassa virus has a segmented genome, placing it in the Arenaviridae family. 3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus belongs to the Nairoviridae family, not Arenaviridae. 4. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family, not Arenaviridae. 5. Epstein-Barr virus belongs to the Herpesviridae family, not Arenaviridae. Summary: A: Lassa virus is correct because it has a segmented genome, characteristic of Arenaviridae. B, C, D: Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus, Rabies virus, and Epstein-Barr virus belong to different virus families, not Arenaviridae.

Question 8 of 9

Shigella sonnei can escape phagocytic clearance by which mechanism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Shigella sonnei escapes phagocytic clearance by lysing the phagosome and replicating in the cytoplasm. This allows the bacterium to avoid being destroyed by the acidic environment and enzymes in the phagolysosome. Choice B is incorrect as Shigella does not have a capsule. Choice C is incorrect because Shigella actually induces phagosome-lysosome fusion to facilitate its escape. Choice D is incorrect as protein A is a component of Staphylococcus aureus, not Shigella sonnei.

Question 9 of 9

The drug most often used in fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: metronidazole. Metronidazole is specifically effective against protozoan infections due to its ability to target and disrupt the DNA of the parasites. It is commonly used to treat infections such as trichomoniasis and giardiasis that affect the reproductive system. Ampicillin (A) and tetracycline (B) are antibiotics that target bacteria, not protozoa. Ciprofloxacin (C) is also an antibiotic that is effective against certain bacterial infections but not protozoan infections. Therefore, metronidazole is the most appropriate choice for fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system.

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