The anesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterized by

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CNS Drugs Pharmacology Questions

Question 1 of 5

The anesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterized by

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of CNS Drugs Pharmacology, understanding the anesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is crucial for healthcare professionals. The correct answer, B) Poor analgesia, reflects the pharmacological profile of thiopentone sodium as a potent intravenous anesthetic with minimal analgesic properties. Thiopentone sodium primarily acts as a CNS depressant by enhancing the inhibitory actions of GABA, leading to sedation and hypnosis. However, it lacks significant analgesic effects, making it unsuitable as a standalone analgesic agent. Option A) Good muscle relaxation is incorrect because thiopentone sodium does not directly induce muscle relaxation. Muscle relaxation is typically achieved through the administration of neuromuscular blocking agents in anesthesia practice. Educationally, this question highlights the specific pharmacological actions of thiopentone sodium, emphasizing the importance of selecting appropriate anesthetic agents based on their unique properties. Healthcare providers need to be knowledgeable about the mechanism of action of CNS drugs to ensure safe and effective patient care during anesthesia procedures.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following drugs displaces plasma protein-bound phenytoin as well as decreases its metabolism

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is B) Sodium valproate. Sodium valproate displaces plasma protein-bound phenytoin and decreases its metabolism through inhibition of hepatic metabolizing enzymes. This interaction can lead to an increase in free phenytoin levels, potentially causing toxicity. Carbamazepine (A) is an enzyme inducer that can increase the metabolism of phenytoin, leading to decreased phenytoin levels. Cimetidine (C) inhibits hepatic microsomal enzymes, but it does not displace phenytoin from plasma proteins. Chloramphenicol (D) inhibits hepatic drug metabolism but does not displace phenytoin from plasma proteins. In an educational context, understanding drug interactions is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective pharmacotherapy. Knowledge of how drugs interact can help in predicting and preventing adverse effects and optimizing treatment outcomes for patients. It is essential to be aware of specific drug interactions, like the one between sodium valproate and phenytoin, to make informed clinical decisions and provide quality patient care.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following factors indicates that withdrawal of the successfully used antiepileptic medication is likely to result in recurrence of seizures?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of CNS drugs pharmacology and the management of epilepsy, the correct answer to the question is option B) Partial seizures. Partial seizures are indicative of focal brain involvement, which may require more specific and targeted treatment compared to generalized seizures. If antiepileptic medication is successfully controlling partial seizures, withdrawal of this medication could lead to the reemergence of seizures due to the underlying focal pathology not being fully resolved. Option A) Childhood epilepsy is not a determining factor in predicting seizure recurrence upon medication withdrawal. The age of onset does not necessarily correlate with the likelihood of seizure recurrence upon medication withdrawal. Option C) Treatment started soon after seizure onset actually suggests a better prognosis and response to medication. Early initiation of treatment can lead to better seizure control and may reduce the risk of recurrence upon withdrawal in some cases. Option D) Absence of EEG abnormality does not definitively indicate the likelihood of seizure recurrence upon medication withdrawal. EEG findings are just one aspect of the overall assessment of epilepsy and its management. Educationally, understanding the underlying pathology of seizures, the importance of tailored treatment approaches for different seizure types, and the implications of medication withdrawal are crucial in providing optimal care for patients with epilepsy. Recognizing the factors that may influence seizure recurrence can guide healthcare providers in making informed decisions regarding treatment strategies and patient outcomes.

Question 4 of 5

Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine is used as a supplement to levodopa because when used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects. This is the correct answer (Option C) because bromocriptine, a dopamine receptor agonist, can lead to adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and hallucinations when used at doses required for efficacy in treating Parkinson's disease. Option A (low efficacy) is incorrect because bromocriptine does have efficacy in targeting dopamine receptors, but the issue lies in the side effect profile when used at effective doses. Option B (first dose hypotension) is incorrect as this side effect is typically associated with other medications like dopamine agonists used in Parkinson's disease. Option D (therapeutic effect takes a long time to develop) is incorrect as bromocriptine can have a relatively quick onset of action due to its direct action on dopamine receptors. Educationally, it is important for healthcare providers to understand the rationale behind using bromocriptine as an adjunct to levodopa in the treatment of parkinsonism to optimize patient outcomes and minimize side effects. Understanding the pharmacological properties of CNS drugs like bromocriptine can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions in clinical practice.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following is a high-potency antipsychotic drug having minimal sedative and autonomic effects and no propensity to cause weight gain?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of CNS Drugs Pharmacology, the correct answer is C) Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a high-potency antipsychotic drug that is known for its minimal sedative and autonomic effects. It is also associated with no propensity to cause weight gain, making it a favorable choice for some patients. A) Chlorpromazine is a low-potency antipsychotic that is known to have significant sedative effects, autonomic effects, and a higher likelihood of causing weight gain compared to Haloperidol. B) Triflupromazine is another low-potency antipsychotic drug that has sedative effects and a propensity for weight gain, unlike Haloperidol. D) Reserpine is not an antipsychotic drug but rather a medication used for the treatment of hypertension. It works by depleting stores of catecholamines, leading to sedative effects and other adverse effects, which are not characteristic of Haloperidol. Educationally, understanding the differences between antipsychotic drugs in terms of potency, side effect profiles, and clinical use is crucial for healthcare professionals in selecting the most appropriate treatment for patients with psychiatric disorders. Knowing the specific characteristics of each drug can help in optimizing therapy and improving patient outcomes.

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