ATI RN
Leadership ATI Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 9
The ANA recommends that nursing in the health care organization change its focus. This requires a shift from a technical model to which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Professional. The shift from a technical model to a professional model aligns with the ANA's emphasis on advancing nursing practice. Professionals have specialized knowledge, adhere to ethical standards, and engage in ongoing education. Industrial (B) focuses on efficiency in production, not applicable to nursing. Random (C) lacks structure and purpose. Organized (D) implies structure but doesn't capture the essence of professionalism in nursing practice.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse manager can use several strategies to improve communication when giving directions. Asking the subordinate to repeat the instructions would be which of the following strategies?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Verifying through feedback. This strategy involves ensuring that the message was accurately received and understood by asking the subordinate to repeat the instructions. This helps confirm clarity and reduces the chances of miscommunication or errors. It promotes active listening and engagement, enhancing communication effectiveness. Summary: B: Follow-up communication is about checking in after the initial communication, not verifying understanding in the moment. C: Getting positive attention is unrelated to verifying understanding of directions. D: Knowing the context of the instruction is important but not the same as verifying understanding through feedback.
Question 3 of 9
Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) working in the diabetic clinic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, "Measure the ankle-brachial index." This task involves using a blood pressure cuff and Doppler ultrasound to assess blood flow in the lower extremities, which is within the scope of practice for UAPs. It is a non-invasive procedure that does not require specialized training. Choice B, "Check for changes in skin pigmentation," involves assessing for potential skin changes related to circulation issues, which requires more in-depth knowledge and interpretation than what UAPs are trained for. Choice C, "Assess for unilateral or bilateral foot drop," involves evaluating muscle strength and nerve function, which requires clinical judgment and knowledge beyond the scope of UAP practice. Choice D, "Ask the patient about symptoms of depression," involves assessing mental health and requires communication skills and training that UAPs do not typically have.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is one of the positive benefits of conflict within an organization?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because conflict can help individuals recognize differences and perspectives, leading to increased understanding and motivation for improved performance. Conflict can stimulate creativity and innovation, encouraging teams to consider different viewpoints and solutions. It does not always result in a win-win resolution (D) as conflicts can have winners and losers. Compromising on values and beliefs (A) is not a positive outcome of conflict, as it may undermine organizational integrity. Intergroup competition (B) may escalate conflicts and hinder collaboration.
Question 5 of 9
Which theory emphasizes the long-range plan rather than rewards?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Goal setting theory. This theory emphasizes setting specific, challenging goals to improve performance, focusing on long-range planning rather than immediate rewards. Goals provide direction and motivation, leading to increased effort and persistence. Equity theory (A) focuses on fairness in outcomes and inputs. Development (B) refers to personal growth and learning. Extinction (D) is a behaviorist concept related to the disappearance of a previously learned behavior due to lack of reinforcement.
Question 6 of 9
A 26-year-old female with type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. The nurse advises the patient to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing an illness (sore throat and runny nose) which can lead to elevated blood glucose levels due to increased stress hormones. It is essential to closely monitor blood glucose levels to prevent hyperglycemia-related complications. The nurse's advice aligns with the goal of closely monitoring the patient's condition and seeking medical attention if blood glucose levels continue to rise. Choice A is incorrect because using only lispro insulin may not be sufficient to manage the elevated blood glucose levels caused by illness. Choice B is incorrect as limiting calorie intake may not be the appropriate action to take in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing carbohydrate intake based on glycosylated hemoglobin levels is not an immediate solution to address the current elevated blood glucose levels due to illness.
Question 7 of 9
What is the main purpose of recruitment activities?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Generate a pool of qualified applicants. The main purpose of recruitment activities is to attract and identify a diverse pool of qualified candidates for a job vacancy. By generating a pool of qualified applicants, the organization increases the chances of finding the best fit for the position. Option A, assessing motivation, is not the main purpose but can be a part of the recruitment process. Option C, assessing skills, and option D, assessing ability, are more related to the selection process rather than recruitment.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is an example of an environmental factor that could influence decision-making in nursing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the choices (A, B, C) are examples of environmental factors that can influence decision-making in nursing. Personal preferences can affect how a nurse chooses a treatment plan. Ethical considerations impact decisions regarding patient care. The availability of resources, such as staffing or medical supplies, can constrain decision-making. Therefore, considering all these factors collectively (personal preferences, ethical considerations, and availability of resources) is crucial in making informed nursing decisions.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who can diagnose and treat medical conditions independently, under the scope of their licensure. NPs have the authority to prescribe medications, order diagnostic tests, and provide primary care services. This role allows them to manage patient care autonomously, without direct supervision from a physician. Choice A is incorrect because NPs do not provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician; they work independently. Choice C is incorrect because NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect because while NPs may specialize in specific areas of nursing practice, the defining characteristic of their role is the ability to diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.