The AGACNP recognizes that which of the following diagnostic studies is essential in all cases of acute abdomen?

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Question 1 of 9

The AGACNP recognizes that which of the following diagnostic studies is essential in all cases of acute abdomen?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chest radiography. In cases of acute abdomen, a chest radiograph is essential to rule out conditions like pneumothorax, pleural effusion, or pneumonia which may present with similar symptoms. This helps in identifying potential causes of abdominal pain outside the abdomen. Abdominal radiograph (A) may not provide enough information for diagnosis. Contrast radiography (B) and ultrasonography (D) are not universally essential for all cases of acute abdomen and may not be appropriate in certain situations.

Question 2 of 9

Which one of the following is an endogenous cause of puerperal sepsis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Escherichia coli. Puerperal sepsis is often caused by endogenous bacteria from the mother's own flora. E. coli is a common endogenous bacteria found in the gastrointestinal tract and can cause infection during childbirth. Chlamydia trachomatis is a sexually transmitted infection, not typically associated with puerperal sepsis. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not puerperal sepsis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an environmental pathogen, not typically an endogenous cause of puerperal sepsis.

Question 3 of 9

What is the most common cause of fetal distress during labor?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Placental insufficiency. Placental insufficiency can lead to decreased oxygen and nutrient supply to the fetus, causing fetal distress during labor. This can result in abnormal fetal heart rate patterns and potential complications. A: Umbilical cord prolapse can also cause fetal distress but is less common than placental insufficiency. B: Uterine rupture is a serious complication but typically presents with maternal symptoms rather than fetal distress. D: Fetal position can impact labor progress but is not typically the primary cause of fetal distress.

Question 4 of 9

K. W. is a 50-year-old woman who presents for surgical resection of the liver for treatment of metastatic colon cancer. Preoperatively, the surgeon tells her that he is planning to remove 50 to 75 of her liver. The patient is concerned that she will not be able to recover normal liver function with that much removed. The AGACNP counsels her that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because high-volume liver resection is typically performed in individuals with significantly compromised hepatic function to ensure adequate liver remnant. Removing 50 to 75% of the liver in a patient with metastatic colon cancer may be necessary for tumor clearance but carries risks due to potential impairment of liver function postoperatively. Choices B and C provide inaccurate information regarding the timeline and extent of liver regeneration following resection. Choice D is incorrect as removing up to 95% of the liver would lead to severe consequences, such as liver failure. Hence, option A is the most appropriate advice given the patient's situation.

Question 5 of 9

Five (5) major factors predisposed to uterine rupture:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): 1. Previous C-section and uterine scars weaken the uterine wall. 2. Fetal macrosomia (large baby) increases pressure on the uterus. 3. Trauma can cause direct injury to the uterus. 4. Prolonged labor can lead to uterine overdistension and fatigue, increasing rupture risk. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Malpresentation, premature rupture of membranes, obesity, malnutrition, anemia are not direct factors for uterine rupture. C: Uterine fibroids, excessive weight gain, smoking, poor prenatal care can contribute to complications but not primary causes of uterine rupture. D: Not all factors in choices B and C are predisposing factors for uterine rupture, making this choice incorrect.

Question 6 of 9

The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract, associated with abnormal apical position, is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Choanal atresia. The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract with abnormal apical position is typically associated with choanal atresia, which is a blockage or narrowing of the back of the nasal passage. This condition can lead to respiratory distress in newborns due to difficulty breathing through the nose. Explanation: 1. Laryngeal stridor (Choice A) is a high-pitched noise during breathing and is not typically associated with abnormal apical position. 2. Diaphragmatic hernia (Choice B) is a defect in the diaphragm that allows abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity, but it is not related to abnormal apical position. 3. Tracheo-bronchi fistula (Choice D) is an abnormal connection between the trachea and bronchi, which is not associated with abnormal apical position. In summary, choanal atresia is the correct answer because it fits the description of

Question 7 of 9

With respect to tumor nomenclature, the AGACNP knows that the term carcinoma describes

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the term "carcinoma" specifically refers to neoplasms of epithelial origin. Epithelial cells line the surfaces and cavities of the body, so carcinomas originate from these tissues. This term does not describe internal structure (A), loss of growth regulation (B), or metaplastic adaptation (C). Carcinomas are the most common type of cancer and can occur in various organs such as the skin, lungs, breasts, and colon.

Question 8 of 9

What are the key indicators for cesarean section during labor?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all three choices are key indicators for cesarean section during labor. Fetal distress indicates the baby is not tolerating labor well. Failure to progress may lead to complications for the mother or baby. Breech presentation increases the risk of complications during vaginal delivery. Therefore, all three indicators warrant consideration for a cesarean section to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

Question 9 of 9

Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspiration and culture of fluid. Given Jasmine's history of injection drug use, neck pain, inability to turn her neck, elevated temperature, and foul breath, there is a high suspicion of a deep neck space infection. Aspiration and culture of fluid from the affected area will help identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. This procedure is essential for definitive diagnosis and management of deep neck infections. A: Anteroposterior neck radiography is not the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for evaluating deep neck space infections as it may not provide detailed information on the extent or nature of the infection. B: CT scan of the neck may provide valuable information regarding the extent of the infection, but aspiration and culture of fluid are crucial for identifying the causative organism. C: White blood cell (WBC) differential may show signs of inflammation, but it does not provide specific information on the causative organism of the infection.

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