The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include

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Midwifery Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperextension casting. The AGACNP knows that this treatment is appropriate for a condition that requires immobilization and support while allowing controlled movement. Hyperextension casting provides stability and support while promoting healing. Observation (A) would not provide adequate treatment for a condition requiring immobilization. Jewett brace (C) is typically used for spinal fractures, not for conditions that require hyperextension casting. Surgical intervention (D) would be considered if conservative measures like casting have failed.

Question 2 of 9

Secondary postpartum haemorrhage mostly occurs between the 8th-14th day postpartumly and can extend up to the first 46 days following delivery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because secondary postpartum hemorrhage typically occurs between the 8th-14th day postpartum and can extend up to 6 weeks after delivery. This timeframe aligns with the physiological changes and healing process after childbirth. Choice B is incorrect because it contradicts the established timeframe for secondary postpartum hemorrhage. Choice C is incorrect as secondary postpartum hemorrhage is not rare but rather a recognized complication that can occur after childbirth. Choice D is incorrect as secondary postpartum hemorrhage does not happen sporadically, but rather follows a defined timeframe based on postpartum physiological changes.

Question 3 of 9

A patient admitted for management of sepsis is critically ill and wants to talk with a hospital representative about donating her organs if she dies. She has a fairly complex medical history that includes traumatic brain injury, breast cancer, and dialysis-dependent renal failure. The patient is advised that she is ineligible to donate due to her

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gram negative infection. In sepsis, especially with a Gram negative infection, organ donation may pose a risk of transmitting the infection to the recipient. This can be life-threatening for the organ recipient. Renal failure (choice A), traumatic brain injury (choice B), and breast cancer (choice D) are not direct contraindications to organ donation. Renal failure may limit the suitability of certain organs, but it does not automatically disqualify a patient from donating other organs. Traumatic brain injury may impact brain donation but does not rule out other organ donation. Breast cancer may affect eligibility for certain organs but does not universally disqualify a patient from organ donation.

Question 4 of 9

Vaginal birth after caesarean section is known as

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trial of scar. This term specifically refers to the process of attempting a vaginal birth after a previous caesarean section. It involves monitoring the previous cesarean scar for any signs of complications during labor. A: Spontaneous vaginal delivery refers to giving birth vaginally without any previous cesarean section. C: Spontaneous vertex delivery simply describes the position of the baby's head during birth. D: Trial of birth is not a commonly used term in obstetrics and does not specifically relate to VBAC.

Question 5 of 9

The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice in managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that reduces neuronal excitability and neuromuscular transmission, thus preventing seizures. It also helps in lowering blood pressure and preventing complications. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (B) is used for calcium deficiency, not eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to correct acidosis, not for managing eclampsia.

Question 6 of 9

Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions highly associated with:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rhesus D incompatibility. Icterus gravis (severe jaundice) and hydrops fetalis (abnormal accumulation of fluid) are both conditions commonly associated with Rhesus D incompatibility between a mother and her fetus. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive, leading to maternal antibodies attacking the fetal red blood cells, resulting in severe hemolytic anemia and subsequent complications. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: ABO incompatibility typically leads to less severe jaundice and hemolytic disease compared to Rhesus D incompatibility. C: Physiological jaundice is a common and benign condition in newborns caused by the immaturity of the liver, not by blood type incompatibility. D: Instant perinatal death is not specifically associated with these conditions, but rather with other serious complications during childbirth.

Question 7 of 9

Teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities include

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because radiation and substances of abuse are known teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities. Radiation exposure can lead to genetic mutations and developmental issues in the fetus. Substances of abuse like alcohol, tobacco, and illicit drugs can also negatively impact fetal development. A: Medical conditions and pesticides may have negative effects on pregnancy outcomes, but they are not typically classified as teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities. B: Prescription drugs can be teratogenic in some cases, but not all prescription drugs have harmful effects on fetal development. Chromosomes are not typically considered teratogenic causes. D: Disordered genes can lead to congenital abnormalities, but they are not classified as teratogenic causes. Medical conditions are not universally teratogenic.

Question 8 of 9

The main clinical feature in hyperemesis gravidarum is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Persistent vomiting or nausea. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by persistent vomiting and nausea during pregnancy. This is the main clinical feature due to hormonal changes and increased sensitivity to certain odors. Choice B is incorrect as sight-related problems are not a typical feature of hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C is incorrect as persistent diarrhea is not a defining feature of this condition. Choice D is incorrect as frequency or urgency of micturition is not a primary symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum.

Question 9 of 9

The AGACNP is rounding on a patient following splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura. On postoperative day 2, a review of the laboratory studies is expected to reveal

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Post-splenectomy, platelet count typically drops temporarily, leading to a risk of bleeding. Step 2: To compensate, the body increases hemoglobin (Hgb) levels to maintain oxygen-carrying capacity. Step 3: Therefore, on postoperative day 2, an increased Hgb level is expected. Summary: A is incorrect because MCV is not typically affected in this scenario. C is incorrect because platelet count usually decreases post-splenectomy. D is incorrect as albumin levels are not directly impacted by splenectomy for ITP.

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