ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The AGACNP is treating a patient with ascites. After a regimen of 200 mg of spironolactone daily, the patient demonstrates a weight loss of 0.75 kgday. The best approach to this patients management is to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best approach to managing the patient with ascites who has responded to spironolactone with weight loss is to add a loop diuretic to the current regimen. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist that primarily works on the distal convoluted tubule, while loop diuretics, such as furosemide, act on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Combining these two diuretics can result in a synergistic effect, increasing diuresis and reducing fluid retention in patients with ascites. This combination therapy is often used in patients who do not respond adequately to spironolactone alone, and it is considered a common strategy in the management of ascites due to cirrhosis. Therefore, adding a loop diuretic to the spironolactone regimen is the most appropriate next step to optimize diuresis and fluid management in this patient.
Question 2 of 5
Occipito-posterior position: b) Define occipito-posterior position
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Occipito-posterior position occurs when the baby faces the mother's back with the head down.
Question 3 of 5
What is the role of antenatal corticosteroids in preterm labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corticosteroids accelerate fetal lung maturity to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome.
Question 4 of 5
The priority management of uncomplicated malaria during the second trimester includes administration of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Artemether lumefantrine is recommended for uncomplicated malaria in pregnancy.
Question 5 of 5
The commonest causative agent for pyelonephritis is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Escherichia coli is the most common causative agent for pyelonephritis.