ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
The AGACNP is rounding on a patient following splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura. On postoperative day 2, a review of the laboratory studies is expected to reveal
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased MCV. Following splenectomy, there is a compensatory increase in red blood cell production, leading to an increase in Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) due to the release of larger, younger red blood cells into circulation. This is known as stress erythropoiesis. Summary: B: Increased Hgb - Hgb levels may not necessarily increase post-splenectomy as it depends on factors such as bleeding or hydration status. C: Increased platelets - Platelet count is not expected to increase immediately post-splenectomy. D: Increased albumin - Albumin levels are not directly influenced by splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.
Question 2 of 9
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory insufficiency. Chronic traumatic diaphragmatic hernias can lead to gradual compromise of respiratory function due to herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity, causing compression of the lungs and reduced lung capacity. This results in symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and chest pain. Sepsis (B) is more commonly associated with acute traumatic diaphragmatic hernias. Bowel obstruction (C) is a possible complication but typically presents with acute symptoms like abdominal pain and distension. Anemia (D) is not a common presentation of diaphragmatic hernias.
Question 3 of 9
Cardiac disease grade 1 is also known as
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Grade 1 cardiac disease refers to early-stage or mild heart conditions that are not yet severe. Choice A, "Organic disease," is the correct answer as it encompasses a broad category of structural heart abnormalities. Mitral stenosis (B) and ventricular failure (C) are specific conditions that can be present in cardiac disease but do not represent the general term for grade 1. Vascular disease (D) primarily refers to conditions affecting blood vessels, not the heart itself. In summary, choice A is correct because it is a comprehensive term that includes various structural heart abnormalities typically found in grade 1 cardiac disease, while the other choices are either too specific or unrelated to the concept of grade 1 cardiac disease.
Question 4 of 9
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who reportedly fell down a flight of steps. Her history is significant for several emergency room visits, but she denies any significant medical conditions. Some documentation in her chart indicates that she may have been subjected to physical abuse. Today she presents with a periorbital ecchymosis of the left eye and swelling in the left side of the face. Her neurologic examination is within normal limits. Which head imaging study would be most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Radiographs. Radiographs, specifically skull X-rays, are most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this case. Radiographs can detect fractures, such as skull fractures or facial bone fractures, which are common in cases of physical abuse. These fractures may not always be clinically evident but can be identified on X-rays. Explanation of other choices: B: CT scan without contrast - While a CT scan can provide detailed imaging of the head, it may not be necessary in this case as the patient's neurologic examination is within normal limits. Also, radiographs are more cost-effective and can detect fractures effectively. C: MRI - MRI is not typically used as the first-line imaging modality for suspected head trauma due to its cost and time-consuming nature. Radiographs are more appropriate for initial evaluation. D: PET scan - PET scans are used to detect metabolic activity in tissues and are not typically indicated for assessing acute traumatic injuries like fractures associated with
Question 5 of 9
How does maternal age impact pregnancy risks?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because both statements A and C are true. Older mothers have a higher risk of developing preeclampsia due to age-related complications. Additionally, advanced maternal age is associated with an increased likelihood of requiring a cesarean section due to factors like decreased uterine elasticity. Statement B is incorrect as younger mothers are not at higher risk of miscarriage compared to older mothers. This is because maternal age is not a significant factor in miscarriage risk.
Question 6 of 9
enna is a 41-year-old female who presents to the emergency room complaining of sudden hearing loss. She is generally very healthyshe denies any significant medical history, and her only daily medication is a combined oral contraceptive. She does admit that she is just getting over a head cold, but other than that she offers no relevant history. A comprehensive history and physical examination results in a diagnosis of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) of unknown origin. The AGACNP knows that the next step in the patients management should include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperbaric oxygen. SSHL is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy increases oxygen delivery to the inner ear, potentially reversing the hearing loss. Acyclovir (A) is used for viral infections, not SSHL. Furosemide (B) is a diuretic used for treating fluid retention, not SSHL. Warfarin (C) is an anticoagulant and is not indicated for SSHL. In summary, hyperbaric oxygen is the appropriate choice for managing SSHL due to its potential to improve oxygen delivery to the inner ear.
Question 7 of 9
A maternal associated risk of prolonged pregnancy includes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Placental insufficiency. Prolonged pregnancy can lead to decreased placental function, resulting in inadequate oxygen and nutrients for the fetus. This can lead to complications such as intra-uterine growth restriction and fetal distress. Option A (Intra-uterine oligohydramnios) is a consequence of decreased amniotic fluid levels but not directly associated with prolonged pregnancy. Option C (Fetal post-maturity syndrome) refers to the complications seen in a post-term newborn, not maternal risks. Option D (Large for gestational age baby) is a consequence of prolonged pregnancy but does not directly impact maternal health.
Question 8 of 9
A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being raped. The AGACNP examines her and realizes that the patients husband is the rapist. The patient does not want to press charges and wants to return home with her husband. The AGACNPs initial action should be to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action for the AGACNP is to provide counseling to the patient regarding her options (Choice D). This is important to ensure the patient's safety, well-being, and autonomy. Counseling will allow the patient to explore her feelings, understand her options, and make an informed decision about her next steps. Reporting the physical assault to law enforcement (Choice A) should only be done with the patient's consent to respect her wishes. Having the patient sign a release to go home with her husband (Choice B) could potentially put the patient at risk of further harm. Consulting psychiatry for a psych hold (Choice C) may not be appropriate unless the patient is deemed a danger to herself or others.
Question 9 of 9
Which one of the following features is indicative of an abnormal labour pattern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of the Bandl's ring. This is indicative of an abnormal labor pattern as it may suggest a uterine rupture, which is a serious complication. Bandl's ring is a constriction ring formed between the upper and lower uterine segments due to excessive uterine contractions. It can lead to fetal distress and necessitate immediate medical intervention. A: Presence of the retraction ring is a normal phenomenon during labor, marking the boundary between the lower and upper uterine segments. C: Cervical canal short and thin can be a normal variation in labor and does not necessarily indicate an abnormal pattern. D: Vagina being warm and moist is a common physiological response during labor and does not provide information on the progress or abnormality of labor.