The AGACNP is receiving report from the recovery room on a patient who just had surgical resection for pheochromocytoma. He knows that which class of drugs should be available immediately to manage hypertensive crisis, a possible consequence of physical manipulation of the adrenal medulla?

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Question 1 of 9

The AGACNP is receiving report from the recovery room on a patient who just had surgical resection for pheochromocytoma. He knows that which class of drugs should be available immediately to manage hypertensive crisis, a possible consequence of physical manipulation of the adrenal medulla?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why D is correct: 1. Arteriolar dilators such as sodium nitroprusside are used to manage hypertensive crisis by rapidly reducing blood pressure. 2. Pheochromocytoma surgery can result in catecholamine release, causing severe hypertension. 3. Arteriolar dilators act directly on blood vessels to lower blood pressure quickly. 4. Alpha-adrenergic antagonists (A) can worsen hypotension, beta-adrenergic antagonists (B) can lead to unopposed alpha-adrenergic effects, and intravenous vasodilators (C) may not act rapidly enough.

Question 2 of 9

Haematinics, dietary advice, and close surveillance are management plans for

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Moderate anaemia. Haematinics, dietary advice, and close surveillance are appropriate management plans for moderate anaemia to improve iron levels and overall health. For mild anaemia, dietary changes alone may be sufficient. Severe anaemia often requires more aggressive treatments like blood transfusions. Anaemia prevention focuses on strategies to avoid developing anaemia rather than managing an existing case.

Question 3 of 9

Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ordering hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression is the appropriate response for hepatic hemangiomas. Biopsy is not recommended due to the risk of bleeding. Surgery is usually not required unless there are complications. Documenting the finding is important but does not address the need for monitoring. Ultrasound allows for non-invasive monitoring of the hemangiomas over time to assess for growth or complications, guiding further management if needed.

Question 4 of 9

Presence of a turtle’s sign is clearly indicative of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presence of a turtle sign during delivery is indicative of shoulder dystocia. This occurs when the baby's shoulders get stuck behind the mother's pelvic bones during delivery, leading to difficulty in delivering the baby's shoulders. The turtle sign refers to the retraction of the baby's head back into the birth canal after delivery of the head, resembling a turtle retracting into its shell. This sign is a clear indicator of shoulder dystocia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because prolonged labor, occipito-posterior position, and shoulder presentation do not specifically involve the retraction of the baby's head like in shoulder dystocia.

Question 5 of 9

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy treatment for cancer is given to facilitate surgical resection. When the outcomes of cancer therapies are evaluated, the terms complete response and partial response often are used. Partial response means that

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because partial response in cancer therapy typically refers to a reduction in tumor size by more than 50%. This reduction indicates some positive effect of the treatment on the tumor. Choice A is incorrect because partial response is not solely based on the percentage of patients demonstrating remission, it is about the tumor response. Choice B is incorrect because survival at 5 years is related to overall survival rate, not specifically to the tumor response. Choice D is incorrect because the conversion from unresectable to resectable is more related to the operability of the tumor, rather than the response to chemotherapy.

Question 6 of 9

Specific management for incomplete uterine rupture:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because immediate cesarean is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Monitoring for signs of shock is essential to detect any deterioration in the mother's condition. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the mother's hemodynamic status. Option B is incorrect as observation alone may delay necessary interventions. Option C is partially correct as immediate cesarean is necessary but does not address monitoring for shock and fluid resuscitation. Option D is incorrect as continuous monitoring alone is insufficient to manage incomplete uterine rupture.

Question 7 of 9

The term used to describe a situation whereby the fetal lie keeps varying after 36 gestational weeks is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unstable lie. After 36 weeks of gestation, the fetal lie should typically be consistent. An unstable lie refers to a situation where the fetal lie keeps changing position, indicating a potential complication. This can lead to difficulties during labor and delivery. Summary: B: Compound lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is in an abnormal position, such as breech or transverse, alongside another part of the body presenting first. C: Multiple lie - Not a recognized medical term. D: Transverse lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is positioned horizontally across the uterus, which can complicate delivery.

Question 8 of 9

Pneumatosis, or gas cysts, may form in the wall anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract in some cases, they will produce symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, diarrhea with mucus, and excess flatulence. Treatment of pneumatosis most often involves

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperbaric oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy involves breathing pure oxygen in a pressurized room, which can help reduce gas cysts in the gastrointestinal tract by increasing oxygen delivery to tissues. This promotes healing and reduces symptoms associated with pneumatosis. A: Several days of oxygen by face mask is not as effective as hyperbaric oxygen therapy in treating pneumatosis, as it does not provide the same level of pressurized oxygen delivery to tissues. C: Surgical resection may be considered in severe cases of pneumatosis where conservative treatments have failed, but it is not the first-line treatment option. D: Treatment of underlying disease is important in managing pneumatosis, but it may not directly address the gas cysts themselves. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy specifically targets the gas cysts to alleviate symptoms.

Question 9 of 9

Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs within the neonatal stage because newborns have low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. This deficiency typically manifests between 1-7 days after birth. Bleeding within the first 24 hours (choice A) is unlikely as it is too early for vitamin K deficiency to cause symptoms. Bleeding within infancy (choice C) is incorrect as it specifically refers to the neonatal stage. Bleeding within the first week of birth (choice D) is a close distractor, but the critical period for classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding is within the neonatal stage, which is slightly more specific than the first week of birth.

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