The AGACNP is receiving report from the recovery room on a patient who just had surgical resection for pheochromocytoma. He knows that which class of drugs should be available immediately to manage hypertensive crisis, a possible consequence of physical manipulation of the adrenal medulla?

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Question 1 of 5

The AGACNP is receiving report from the recovery room on a patient who just had surgical resection for pheochromocytoma. He knows that which class of drugs should be available immediately to manage hypertensive crisis, a possible consequence of physical manipulation of the adrenal medulla?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Surgical manipulation of the adrenal medulla during resection of a pheochromocytoma can result in the release of catecholamines leading to a hypertensive crisis. Alpha-adrenergic antagonists, such as phenoxybenzamine or prazosin, are the drugs of choice for managing hypertensive crisis in this situation. These medications block the alpha-adrenergic receptors, leading to vasodilation and lowering of blood pressure. Beta-adrenergic antagonists are contraindicated in this scenario due to the risk of unopposed alpha-adrenergic stimulation that could worsen the hypertension. Intravenous vasodilators and arteriolar dilators may be used as adjunctive therapy but alpha-adrenergic antagonists are the primary agents for managing hypertensive crisis in this context.

Question 2 of 5

The AGACNP knows that when evaluating a patient with suspected acute pyelonephritis, which of the following is not a common feature?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: While pyuria, fever, and CVA tenderness are common features of acute pyelonephritis, gross hematuria is less commonly associated with this condition. In acute pyelonephritis, the inflammatory process primarily affects the renal parenchyma and pelvis, leading to symptoms such as fever, chills, flank pain, pyuria (presence of pus in the urine), and CVA tenderness (tenderness over the costovertebral angle). Hematuria in acute pyelonephritis is more likely to be microscopic rather than gross.

Question 3 of 5

On postoperative day 7 following hepatic transplant, the patient evidences signs and symptoms of acute rejection, confirmed by histologic examination. The AGACNP knows that first-line treatment of acute rejection consists of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The first-line treatment for acute rejection following hepatic transplant is high-dose corticosteroids, such as methylprednisolone. This is because corticosteroids have potent anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects that can help suppress the immune response causing rejection. Cyclosporine, azathioprine, and sirolimus are also commonly used immunosuppressive medications in transplant patients, but in this case of acute rejection, the immediate treatment of choice is methylprednisolone.

Question 4 of 5

Achalasia is a risk factor for

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Achalasia is a motility disorder characterized by the inability of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax, resulting in difficulty swallowing and impaired movement of food from the esophagus into the stomach. Patients with achalasia have an increased risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus. This risk is due to chronic inflammation, stasis of food in the esophagus, and increased exposure of esophageal mucosa to irritants, all of which can contribute to the development of cancer over time. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (Choice B) is less likely to be associated with achalasia because the impaired esophageal motility in achalasia results in decreased, rather than increased, reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus. Esophageal atrophy (Choice C) and malabsorption syndromes (Choice D) are not directly related to achalasia.

Question 5 of 5

K. W. is a 50-year-old woman who presents for surgical resection of the liver for treatment of metastatic colon cancer. Preoperatively, the surgeon tells her that he is planning to remove 50 to 75 of her liver. The patient is concerned that she will not be able to recover normal liver function with that much removed. The AGACNP counsels her that

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The liver is known for its remarkable ability to regenerate. Major regeneration can occur within 10 days after partial hepatectomy (liver resection) as a compensatory mechanism. The process is typically complete within 5 weeks. This regenerative capacity allows for safe removal of a significant portion of the liver for procedures such as liver resection for cancer. The remaining liver tissue is able to rapidly proliferate and restore normal liver function. The patient should be reassured that even with 50 to 75% of her liver being removed, she can expect a significant amount of liver function recovery postoperatively.

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