ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who reportedly fell down a flight of steps. Her history is significant for several emergency room visits, but she denies any significant medical conditions. Some documentation in her chart indicates that she may have been subjected to physical abuse. Today she presents with a periorbital ecchymosis of the left eye and swelling in the left side of the face. Her neurologic examination is within normal limits. Which head imaging study would be most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) would be the most useful head imaging study in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this patient. MRI is superior to CT in detecting subtle changes in the brain, such as small hemorrhages, edema, or shearing injuries, which may be present in cases of physical abuse. In cases of suspected abuse, it is important to evaluate for both acute and chronic changes that may not be clearly visible on other imaging modalities. While CT scans can detect acute hemorrhages or fractures, they may miss more subtle findings that can be seen on MRI. Therefore, an MRI would provide a more comprehensive evaluation of the brain and surrounding structures in this case.
Question 2 of 5
R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In patients with Cushing's syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor, removal of the tumor can result in a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. This occurs because the suppressed pituitary gland begins to recover and overproduce hormones in response to the sudden decrease in negative feedback from the removed tumor. As a result, patients may experience transient hormonal fluctuations before the pituitary gland establishes a new equilibrium. Therefore, when seeing the patient in follow-up after surgery, the AGACNP should anticipate a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones rather than immediate and rapid reversal of symptoms or markedly improved test results. Additionally, hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH are less likely in this scenario unless there are other underlying factors contributing to it.
Question 3 of 5
Mr. Novello is an 81-year old male patient who presents with crampy abdominal pain in the hypogastrum and a vague history as to his last normal bowel movement. Physical examination reveals distention and high-pitched bowel sounds. The patient says he has never has this kind of problem before and denies any history of abdominal surgery. Abdominal radiographs reveal a frame pattern of colonic distention. The AGACNP considers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate step for the AGACNP to take in this scenario is to decompress the colon with a rectal tube. The patient's presentation, including crampy abdominal pain, distention, lack of bowel movements, and a frame pattern of colonic distention on radiographs, are suggestive of acute colonic pseudo-obstruction, also known as Ogilvie's syndrome. This condition is characterized by colonic distention without a mechanical obstruction, which can lead to significant complications such as perforation.
Question 4 of 5
There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the given scenario where there are no other abnormal findings, it suggests that Mr. Thornton is experiencing anterior wall ischemia. Ischemia occurs due to inadequate blood supply to the heart muscles, often caused by a partial blockage in the coronary arteries. The absence of abnormal findings, such as ST-segment elevation or specific changes on the electrocardiogram (ECG), indicates that the issue is more likely ischemia rather than infarction. Infarction, whether NSTEMI or STEMI, would typically be associated with specific ECG changes and significant abnormalities beyond just the absence of findings. In the absence of these features, the more likely diagnosis is anterior wall ischemia.
Question 5 of 5
The AGACNP is counseling a patient about various methods of tumor biopsy. Which of the following is not an accurate statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Typically, excisional biopsy is preferred over incisional biopsy whenever feasible because it provides a more accurate representation of the tumor since the entire mass is removed. This benefits both the patient (by potentially preventing the need for a second procedure) and the medical team (by ensuring a more comprehensive evaluation of the tumor). It is important to remove the entire lesion during excisional biopsy to make an accurate diagnosis. Incisional biopsy, on the other hand, involves taking only a portion of the tumor for examination, which may lead to potential sampling error and inadequate representation of the tumor.