ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The AGACNP is counseling a patient about various methods of tumor biopsy. Which of the following is not an accurate statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Typically, excisional biopsy is preferred over incisional biopsy whenever feasible because it provides a more accurate representation of the tumor since the entire mass is removed. This benefits both the patient (by potentially preventing the need for a second procedure) and the medical team (by ensuring a more comprehensive evaluation of the tumor). It is important to remove the entire lesion during excisional biopsy to make an accurate diagnosis. Incisional biopsy, on the other hand, involves taking only a portion of the tumor for examination, which may lead to potential sampling error and inadequate representation of the tumor.
Question 2 of 5
Fetal position and occipito-posterior position: a) Define fetal position
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fetal position refers to the alignment of the fetus during pregnancy and labor.
Question 3 of 5
R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In patients with Cushing's syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor, removal of the tumor can result in a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. This occurs because the suppressed pituitary gland begins to recover and overproduce hormones in response to the sudden decrease in negative feedback from the removed tumor. As a result, patients may experience transient hormonal fluctuations before the pituitary gland establishes a new equilibrium. Therefore, when seeing the patient in follow-up after surgery, the AGACNP should anticipate a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones rather than immediate and rapid reversal of symptoms or markedly improved test results. Additionally, hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH are less likely in this scenario unless there are other underlying factors contributing to it.
Question 4 of 5
Priority nursing diagnoses for Mrs. Q (Breech presentation):
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nursing diagnoses include risks of uterine rupture, fetal distress, and pain management.
Question 5 of 5
Match the conditions in column A with their correct description in column B
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Torticollis is caused by damage to the sternomastoid muscles, while Erb’s palsy affects the upper brachial plexus.