The adult children of an elderly client are interested in the use of complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) therapies to help manage their mother's poststroke depression. The nurse responds:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer C: The nurse's response is correct because there has been some research supporting the use of acupuncture in managing depression post-stroke. Acupuncture is a form of CAM therapy that has shown promising results in improving mental health outcomes for stroke patients. By suggesting acupuncture, the nurse is offering a potential evidence-based solution for the client's post-stroke depression. This response aligns with the client's interests in exploring CAM therapies and provides a feasible option for consideration. Incorrect Answers: A: This answer is incorrect because it states there has been no research on the effectiveness of CAM for depression after strokes, which is misleading as there is research supporting the use of acupuncture. B: This answer is incorrect because it assumes that age-related factors like impaired renal function would automatically preclude the use of CAM therapies, which is not always the case. D: This answer is incorrect because it suggests consulting the physician due to inconclusive research, which may hinder the exploration of potentially beneficial CAM therapies like acupuncture

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzodiazepines. Benzodiazepines enhance GABA activity, which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, leading to a calming effect. This class of drugs is commonly used to treat anxiety and insomnia. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: This choice is incorrect because it refers to discontinuing medication when not feeling depressed, which is unrelated to enhancing GABA activity. C: Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that works by affecting serotonin and norepinephrine levels, not GABA. D: Palpitations are a symptom of anxiety or cardiac issues, not related to enhancing GABA activity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Check blood pressure first Rationale: 1. Propranolol is a beta-blocker used for anxiety and hypertension. 2. Before administering Propranolol, it's crucial to check the client's blood pressure, as it can cause hypotension. 3. Monitoring blood pressure helps prevent adverse effects like dizziness, fainting, or decreased perfusion. 4. Fine hand tremor (B) is a potential side effect of Propranolol, but it's not the priority before administration. 5. Headache (C) can be a side effect of Propranolol but is not the primary concern pre-administration. 6. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) (D) are not directly related to the administration of Propranolol for anxiety.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs block the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine at the presynaptic membrane, increasing their availability in the synaptic cleft. This mechanism helps alleviate symptoms of depression. Tachycardia and explosive occipital headache are not types of antidepressants but potential side effects of some medications, including TCAs. Tachycardia is a rapid heart rate, and explosive occipital headache refers to a sudden severe headache at the back of the head. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not antidepressants or related to the mechanism of action described in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased BP. In a hypertensive crisis, the most prominent warning sign is a sudden and severe increase in blood pressure, which can lead to serious complications such as organ damage or stroke. Palpitations and severe headache may occur as symptoms but are not specific warning signs of a hypertensive crisis. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are not related to the warning signs of a hypertensive crisis. Thus, increased BP is the most crucial indicator to identify and address promptly.