The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Glucocorticoids and androgens. The adrenal cortex is divided into three layers, with the outer layer responsible for producing mineralocorticoids like aldosterone, the middle layer producing glucocorticoids like cortisol, and the inner layer producing androgens. Glucocorticoids are essential for regulating metabolism and immune response, while androgens are male sex hormones. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because mineralocorticoids, catecholamines, norepinephrine, and epinephrine are produced by different parts of the adrenal gland, not specifically by the adrenal cortex.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: TIS stands for carcinoma in situ, which means cancer cells are present only in the layer of cells where they first developed. Step 2: N0 indicates no abnormal regional lymph nodes are involved. Step 3: M0 signifies no evidence of distant metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it accurately interprets the TNM staging system for the biopsy report. Summary: A: Incorrect - TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, not no evidence of primary tumor. C: Incorrect - TIS already assesses tumor presence, ruling out this option. D: Incorrect - TIS is not about ascending degrees of distant metastasis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A latex condom with spermicide provides the best protection against HIV transmission during sexual intercourse. Rationale: 1. Latex condoms create a physical barrier that helps prevent the exchange of bodily fluids containing HIV. 2. Spermicide can further reduce the risk of HIV transmission by killing some viruses and bacteria. 3. Research shows that consistent and correct use of condoms is highly effective in reducing the risk of HIV transmission. 4. Other choices are incorrect: - A: Unprotected sex between HIV-positive individuals can lead to the transmission of drug-resistant strains or different strains of HIV. - C: Contraceptive methods like birth control pills do not protect against HIV transmission. - D: The intrauterine device is not specifically recommended for clients with HIV due to potential risks of infection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Subjective data are information reported by the patient that cannot be measured or observed directly. In this case, nausea and abdominal pain are symptoms that can only be described by the patient, making them subjective data. Vomiting, pulse rate, respirations, blood pressure, pale skin, and thick toenails are all objective data, as they can be measured or observed directly by the healthcare provider. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it represents subjective data.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because validating the client's statement about not needing glasses is crucial for accurate data collection. This step ensures that the client's difficulty reading is not due to poor eyesight. - Choice B is about interpreting physical signs, not client data validation. - Choice C involves documenting objective findings, not validating client information. - Choice D pertains to a client's complaint, not necessarily requiring validation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to report the ulcer to the admitting care provider first. This is essential because the ulcer could be a sign of an underlying infection or condition that needs immediate attention, especially in a hospitalized patient with pneumonia. Reporting the ulcer ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate treatment. The other options are incorrect because teaching about STD prevention and asking about syphilis assume the cause of the ulcer is related to a sexually transmitted infection, which may not be the case in this scenario. Additionally, cleaning the ulcer without proper assessment and diagnosis by a healthcare provider can lead to complications or delay in appropriate treatment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Providing oral care does not directly address fluid balance or hydration status. 2. Oral care focuses on maintaining oral hygiene and preventing infections. 3. Choices A, B, and D all involve fluid intake to address dehydration. 4. Offering large amounts of fluid, enteral or parenteral fluids, and small volumes at frequent intervals all aim to correct the patient's condition by replenishing lost fluids. Summary: Choice C is incorrect because oral care does not directly address the patient's dehydration. Choices A, B, and D are better options as they focus on fluid replacement to correct the patient's condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Is written as a two-part statement. This is because a nursing diagnosis typically consists of two parts: the problem (risk for aspiration) and the related factor (reduced level of consciousness). By using a two-part statement, the nurse clearly identifies the client's current health problem and the underlying reason for it. This format helps in developing appropriate nursing interventions to address the issue. Choice B is incorrect because the nursing diagnosis does not describe the client's response to a health problem; it identifies the potential risk for aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as the diagnosis does not focus on enhancement but rather on potential harm. Choice D is incorrect because the nursing diagnosis is based on the available evidence of the client's reduced level of consciousness, which poses a risk for aspiration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct choice is A: 18 gauge IV cannula for blood transfusion. Larger gauge allows for faster flow rate, crucial for transfusions to prevent clotting. 24, 22, and 28 gauge cannulas are too small for adequate blood flow, leading to potential complications like hemolysis or slowed infusion.