ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Glucocorticoids and androgens. The adrenal cortex is divided into three layers, with the outer layer responsible for producing mineralocorticoids like aldosterone, the middle layer producing glucocorticoids like cortisol, and the inner layer producing androgens. Glucocorticoids are essential for regulating metabolism and immune response, while androgens are male sex hormones. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because mineralocorticoids, catecholamines, norepinephrine, and epinephrine are produced by different parts of the adrenal gland, not specifically by the adrenal cortex.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse has been examining the vital signs of the client for the past 2 days. On a particular day, she observe a sudden change in the vital signs of the client. Which of the ff steps should the nurse take immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inform the physician. This is essential because a sudden change in vital signs may indicate a critical condition that requires immediate medical attention. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and provide appropriate interventions. Summary: - B: Changing environmental settings is not a priority when dealing with sudden changes in vital signs. - C: Altering diet intake is not an immediate response to sudden changes in vital signs. - D: Decreasing physical activity may not address the underlying cause of the sudden change in vital signs.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has an open wound and is evaluating the progress of wound healing. Which priority action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because measuring the wound and observing for redness, swelling, or drainage are essential steps in evaluating wound healing progress. Measuring the wound provides objective data on its size changes, while observing for signs of infection like redness, swelling, or drainage helps identify complications. - Choice A is incorrect because the nursing assistive personnel may not have the necessary knowledge to assess wound healing accurately. - Choice B is incorrect because documenting progress as "better" without objective data is subjective and does not provide a clear picture of the wound status. - Choice D is incorrect because leaving the dressing off can expose the wound to contaminants and compromise healing, making it a potentially harmful action.
Question 4 of 9
Which statement by a nurse indicates a good understanding about the differences between data validation and data interpretation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because data validation involves comparing data with other sources to ensure accuracy. This process checks for errors, inconsistencies, and completeness in the data. By comparing data with other sources, nurses can verify the reliability and correctness of the information. Choice A is incorrect because data validation typically occurs after data collection and before data interpretation. Choice B is incorrect because validation is about ensuring data accuracy, not about professional standards. Choice D is incorrect because data interpretation focuses on analyzing and making sense of the data, not on professional standards or validation processes.
Question 5 of 9
When monitoring for hypernatremia, the nurse should assess the client for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Confusion. Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by high sodium levels in the blood. Confusion is a common symptom as high sodium levels can affect brain function. Dry skin (A) is more indicative of dehydration, tachycardia (B) is a symptom of various conditions, and pale coloring (D) is not specific to hypernatremia. Confusion is a key indicator that the nurse should assess for when monitoring for hypernatremia.
Question 6 of 9
A 48-year-old patient has been prescribed trihexyphenidyl for her Parkinson’s disease. Which adverse reaction to this drug can be close-related?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Dryness of mouth Rationale: 1. Trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. 2. Anticholinergic drugs inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to decreased secretions. 3. Dryness of mouth (xerostomia) is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. 4. Excessive salivation, bradycardia, and constipation are not typically associated with anticholinergic drugs, making them incorrect choices.
Question 7 of 9
The following data collection findings could indicate to the nurse that the patient has a hearing loss, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A relaxed face during conversation typically does not indicate a hearing loss, as the patient is likely able to hear and understand. B, speaking loudly, is a common sign of hearing loss. C, turning towards the speaker, suggests an effort to hear better. D, being withdrawn, could indicate difficulty in communication due to hearing loss. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it does not align with typical signs of hearing loss.
Question 8 of 9
Mrs. Zeno asks the nurse why the disease has occurred. The nurse bases the reply on the knowledge that there is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A decreased number of functioning acetyl-choline receptor sites. This is because in diseases like myasthenia gravis, there is an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptor sites, leading to decreased functionality. Choice A is incorrect because it refers to a genetic defect in acetylcholine production, which is not typically the cause of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a reduced amount of acetylcholine, which is not the primary issue in myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions inhibition of the enzyme Ache, which is not the main mechanism in this disease.
Question 9 of 9
A 52-year old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Non-mobile mass with irregular edges. A non-mobile mass with irregular edges is more likely to be cancerous as it indicates potential infiltration into surrounding tissues. This finding raises suspicion for malignancy as cancerous lumps tend to have irregular shapes due to their invasive nature. In contrast, options A and B describe characteristics of benign masses, such as mobile, soft, and easily delineated. Option D indicates no palpable lymph nodes, which does not directly correlate with the characteristics of the breast lump. Therefore, option C is the most concerning and indicative of a potentially cancerous lesion based on the assessment findings provided.