ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Exam Practice Questions
Question 1 of 5
The adolescent is supposed to go to the school nurse at 12:00 to receive his medication for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). He often does not go for the medication. What best describes the nurse's understanding of this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adolescents prioritize peer image-skipping ADHD meds (e.g., Ritalin) at school likely stems from embarrassment, a developmental trait. Lack of understanding or forgetting is possible but less likely with routine. Conscious refusal needs evidence (e.g., verbal rejection). Embarrassment fits social sensitivity, guiding intervention.
Question 2 of 5
Which one of the following antipsychotics has been shown to be a partial agonist at the dopamine D2 receptor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aripiprazole, a third-generation antipsychotic, acts as a partial agonist at D2 receptors, stabilizing dopamine activity: it activates receptors in low-dopamine states (e.g., negative symptoms) and competes with excess dopamine (e.g., psychosis), reducing side effects like EPS. Clozapine, a second-generation drug, has weak D2 affinity, targeting 5HT2 and other receptors. Haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, is a D2 antagonist. Risperidone and thioridazine block D2 fully, not partially. Aripiprazole's unique partial agonism, confirmed by pharmacological data, balances efficacy and tolerability, distinguishing it in schizophrenia treatment.
Question 3 of 5
A patient was admitted to the emergency department with a pulse oximeter reading of 85% after a successful prehospital resuscitation from cardiac arrest due to an asthma attack. What is the most important initial drug to administer as ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oxygen is the most important initial intervention for a patient with a low pulse oximeter reading (85%) to correct hypoxia and prevent further complications. While epinephrine (A) and albuterol (C) are used to treat asthma, oxygen is the priority to address the immediate hypoxia. Sodium bicarbonate (B) is not indicated unless there is severe metabolic acidosis.
Question 4 of 5
Phenobarbital (luminal) is given to a client for a short treatment of anxiety. Which of the following results would indicate a therapeutic serum range of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic serum range for phenobarbital (luminal) in the treatment of anxiety is typically 5-10 mcg/ml. This range is considered effective in managing anxiety symptoms while minimizing the risk of side effects associated with higher levels of the medication. Lower serum levels may be ineffective in treating anxiety, while higher levels increase the risk of adverse effects. Therefore, maintaining the serum concentration within the range of 5-10 mcg/ml is optimal for therapeutic benefits with minimal risks.
Question 5 of 5
A client calls the clinic and tells the nurse that she has missed taking several of her contraceptive pills during the current cycle. What is the best instruction for the nurse to give the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Missing several contraceptive pills compromises efficacy, requiring an alternative method for the cycle to prevent pregnancy. Testing assesses outcome, not prevention. Future methods don't address now. Fewer than three still risks failure. D ensures immediate protection, making it the best instruction.