ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Exam Practice Questions
Question 1 of 5
The adolescent is supposed to go to the school nurse at 12:00 to receive his medication for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). He often does not go for the medication. What best describes the nurse's understanding of this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adolescents prioritize peer image-skipping ADHD meds (e.g., Ritalin) at school likely stems from embarrassment, a developmental trait. Lack of understanding or forgetting is possible but less likely with routine. Conscious refusal needs evidence (e.g., verbal rejection). Embarrassment fits social sensitivity, guiding intervention.
Question 2 of 5
Recent studies into the pathogenesis of halothane-induced malignant hyperthermia indicate which of the following as the likely implicating cause?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia (MH) from halothane involves excitation-contraction coupling defects . MH, a genetic disorder, stems from ryanodine receptor (RYR1) mutations, causing uncontrolled calcium release in muscle, not drug toxicity . Sodium defects , oxygen deficits , or neural overmodulation (E) aren't implicated. This coupling defect triggers hypermetabolism, explaining MH's rapid onset with halothane exposure.
Question 3 of 5
A 55-year-old man with a 40 pack-year history of smoking develops agranulocytosis and some leukemic features. His physical examination of the heart, lungs, and abdomen are within normal limits. Should this disease relate to a potential toxic exposure, which of the following should be considered most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A 56-year-old man with chronic pain injects himself with morphine, which he obtained from a friend who is an emergency department nurse. He is found dead in his apartment by the police. What is the most likely cause of death?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
Which one of the following antipsychotics has been shown to be a partial agonist at the dopamine D2 receptor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aripiprazole, a third-generation antipsychotic, acts as a partial agonist at D2 receptors, stabilizing dopamine activity: it activates receptors in low-dopamine states (e.g., negative symptoms) and competes with excess dopamine (e.g., psychosis), reducing side effects like EPS. Clozapine, a second-generation drug, has weak D2 affinity, targeting 5HT2 and other receptors. Haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, is a D2 antagonist. Risperidone and thioridazine block D2 fully, not partially. Aripiprazole's unique partial agonism, confirmed by pharmacological data, balances efficacy and tolerability, distinguishing it in schizophrenia treatment.