ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The ability of epinephrine to cause hyperglycemia is due to;
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ability of epinephrine to cause hyperglycemia is primarily due to its effect on alpha adrenoreceptors in the pancreatic islets of Langerhans. Epinephrine, acting through these alpha adrenoreceptors, inhibits the release of insulin from beta cells in response to elevated blood glucose levels. This results in decreased uptake of glucose by cells, leading to increased blood glucose levels, ultimately causing hyperglycemia. Other effects of epinephrine, such as vasoconstriction and increased heart rate, also contribute to the overall stress response, but the inhibition of insulin release through alpha adrenoreceptors is the main mechanism responsible for its hyperglycemic effects.
Question 2 of 5
A patient complains about a burning sensation and pain when urinating. Which urinary analgesic does the nurse suspect will be ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic commonly used to relieve the burning sensation and pain experienced during urination, typically caused by urinary tract infection or irritation. It works by acting as a local anesthetic on the lining of the urinary tract, providing relief from discomfort. Tolterodine and oxybutynin are used to treat overactive bladder by reducing bladder spasms and urge incontinence, whereas bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist primarily used to stimulate bladder contractions in individuals with urinary retention. Thus, for the symptom of burning sensation and pain when urinating, phenazopyridine would be the most likely urinary analgesic to be ordered.
Question 3 of 5
A client with juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) 4mg/IV every 6 hours to relieve symptoms of right arm weakness and headache. Which of the following assessments will concern the nurse most?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dexamethasone (Decadron) is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and edema in brain tumors. A client no longer recognizing family members indicates a potential worsening of neurological status, such as increased intracranial pressure or tumor progression, which is a critical concern. Elevated blood glucose and weight gain are common side effects of steroids but are less urgent. Persistent headaches are expected but less concerning than cognitive changes. Therefore, cognitive decline is the most alarming assessment.
Question 4 of 5
The nursing instructor teaches the student nurses about the pharmacological classification of drugs. The instructor evaluates that learning has occurred when the students make which response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pharmacological classification groups drugs by mechanism-anticoagulants influence clotting by inhibiting factors like thrombin, a precise definition. Anti-anginal and antihypertensive describe therapeutic effects, not mechanisms. Calcium channel blockers' action is mechanistic but less broad than clotting's systemic impact. Anticoagulants' specific role in coagulation reflects accurate classification understanding, key for pharmacology learning.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer heparin to a client. Which laboratory value should the nurse check prior to administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin, an anticoagulant, prolongs clotting via antithrombin, monitored by aPTT to ensure therapeutic range (1.5-2.5 times normal) and prevent bleeding or clotting risks. PT/INR (choices A, C) track warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count matters for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but isn't the primary pre-dose check'baseline and periodic counts suffice. aPTT directly reflects heparin's effect, guiding dosing adjustments, especially in acute settings like DVT or PE. Checking it ensures safety, as excessive anticoagulation causes hemorrhage, while under-dosing fails therapy. This aligns with heparin's rapid action and short half-life, making B the critical lab value to verify before administration.