ATI RN
openstax microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The ability of Clostridium tetani to produce exotoxins is encoded by?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: genes with plasmid location. Clostridium tetani produces exotoxins through genes located on plasmids. Plasmids are extrachromosomal genetic elements that carry additional genes. These genes encode for the production of exotoxins in Clostridium tetani. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Clostridium tetani does produce exotoxins, it does not have only endotoxin activity, and the genes responsible for exotoxin production are located on plasmids, not solely on the chromosome or both chromosome and plasmid.
Question 2 of 9
The most common test for the diagnosis of Lyme borreliosis is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ELISA, Western blot. These tests are commonly used for diagnosing Lyme borreliosis due to their high sensitivity and specificity in detecting antibodies against Borrelia burgdorferi, the causative agent. ELISA is the initial screening test, while Western blot is used for confirmation. Widal agglutination test (A) is used for diagnosing typhoid fever, not Lyme disease. Cultivation on blood and chocolate agar (B) is not commonly used for diagnosing Lyme borreliosis as Borrelia species are difficult to culture. Ascoli thermoprecipitation test (D) is used for diagnosing pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, not Lyme disease.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is an active transport mechanism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: pinocytosis. This is an active transport mechanism where cells engulf fluids or solutes through vesicles. Energy is required to transport substances against a concentration gradient. A is incorrect as pinocytosis is an active process, not passive like pinocytosis. B is incorrect as facilitated diffusion is a passive process that uses carrier proteins to move substances down a concentration gradient. C is incorrect as filtration is a passive process that relies on pressure gradients to move substances across a barrier. Therefore, D is the correct choice as it involves the active transport of substances into the cell.
Question 4 of 9
A dentist has detected symptoms of parodontosis in a patient. What antiprotozoal drug should be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Parodontosis is a condition caused by bacterial infection, not protozoal infection. Metronidazole is an effective antibiotic commonly used to treat bacterial infections in the oral cavity, including those associated with parodontosis. Levamisole is an anthelmintic drug used to treat parasitic worm infections, not suitable for parodontosis. Griseofulvin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, not indicated for parodontosis. Mykoseptin is not a recognized drug and is likely a distractor. Therefore, based on the bacterial nature of parodontosis, Metronidazole is the appropriate choice.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has been brought to the hospital with the complaints of headache, pain in left hypochondrium. He has been ill for 1,5 weeks. The sudden illness began with the increase of body temperature up to 39, 90C. In 3 hours the temperature decreased and hydropoiesis began. The attacks repeat rhythmically in 48 hours. The patient had visited one an African country. The doctors have suspected malaria. What method of laboratory diagnostics is necessary to use?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct method of laboratory diagnostics for suspected malaria is blood examination. Malaria is diagnosed by detecting the presence of the Plasmodium parasite in the patient's blood. This can be done through microscopy to identify the parasite in a blood smear or through rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) that detect specific antigens produced by the parasite. Blood examination allows for the direct visualization of the parasite, making it the most accurate method for diagnosing malaria. Immunological tests, stool examination, and urine examination are not suitable for diagnosing malaria as the parasite primarily resides in the red blood cells. Stool and urine examinations are more commonly used for diagnosing gastrointestinal or urinary tract infections, respectively.
Question 6 of 9
DNA transfer from one bacterium to another through phages is termed as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transduction. In bacterial genetics, transduction refers to the process of DNA transfer from one bacterium to another via bacteriophages. During transduction, the bacteriophage infects a bacterium, incorporating bacterial DNA into its own genome, which is then transferred to another bacterium upon infecting it. Rationale: A: Transfection is the process of introducing foreign DNA into eukaryotic cells, not bacteria. C: Induction is the process of activating gene expression in a cell. D: Infection is a general term for the invasion of pathogens into a host organism, not specific to DNA transfer via phages in bacteria.
Question 7 of 9
During fibergastroscopy a patient with ulcer disease of the stomach, the mucosal biopsy is taken from the area of an ulcer. Impression smear is prepared from biopsy material and stained by Gram method; the rest of biopsy material is tested for urease activity. Microscopy of the impression smear revealed gram- negative spiral-shaped microorganisms, urease activity test is positive. What bacteria were detected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. Rationale: 1. Gram-negative spiral-shaped microorganisms match the morphology of Helicobacter pylori. 2. Positive urease activity is a characteristic feature of Helicjsonacter pylori. 3. Helicobacter pylori is specifically associated with gastric ulcers and is a common pathogen in the gastrointestinal tract. Summary: Choice B, Campilobacter jejuni, is a gram-negative curved bacterium but is not typically associated with gastric ulcers or urease activity. Choice C, Treponema pallidum, is a spirochete bacterium causing syphilis, which is not related to gastric ulcers. Choice D, Spirilla minor, is a generic term for spiral-shaped bacteria and is not a specific pathogen associated with gastric ulcers or urease activity.
Question 8 of 9
For the viral structure of rubella virus is true that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry, meaning it has a spherical shape with 20 equilateral triangular faces. This symmetry is common in many viruses and allows for efficient packaging of genetic material. Choice A is incorrect because the rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface. These spikes help the virus attach to host cells. Choice B is incorrect because the rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. This envelope plays a role in viral entry into host cells. Choice C is incorrect because the rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Its genetic material is single-stranded RNA, not DNA. In summary, the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry and possesses glycoprotein spikes, an envelope, and ssRNA genetic material, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.
Question 9 of 9
Bacteria associated with hospital-acquired infections:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This bacterium is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections due to its ability to survive in hospital environments, resist antibiotics, and infect immunocompromised patients. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice A) is more commonly associated with community-acquired pneumonia. Vibrio cholerae (choice C) causes cholera, a waterborne disease, and is not typically associated with hospital-acquired infections. Choice D is incorrect because Pseudomonas aeruginosa is indeed associated with hospital-acquired infections.