The ability of Clostridium tetani to produce exotoxins is encoded by?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: genes with plasmid location. Clostridium tetani produces exotoxins through genes located on plasmids. Plasmids are extrachromosomal genetic elements that carry additional genes. These genes encode for the production of exotoxins in Clostridium tetani. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Clostridium tetani does produce exotoxins, it does not have only endotoxin activity, and the genes responsible for exotoxin production are located on plasmids, not solely on the chromosome or both chromosome and plasmid.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: caliciviruses. Caliciviruses are known to be (+) ssRNA viruses that cause gastroenteritis in a wide range of animals, including birds, cats, dogs, pigs, sheep, cows, and humans. These viruses are highly contagious and can spread through contaminated food or water. Rotaviruses (A) are also a common cause of gastroenteritis, but they are not exclusively isolated from the mentioned animals. Adenoviruses (C) typically cause respiratory or eye infections, not gastroenteritis. Noroviruses (D) are also a major cause of gastroenteritis in humans, but they are not commonly found in animals other than humans.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This bacterium is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections due to its ability to survive in hospital environments, resist antibiotics, and infect immunocompromised patients. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice A) is more commonly associated with community-acquired pneumonia. Vibrio cholerae (choice C) causes cholera, a waterborne disease, and is not typically associated with hospital-acquired infections. Choice D is incorrect because Pseudomonas aeruginosa is indeed associated with hospital-acquired infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why C is correct: 1. Immunomodulators regulate the immune response. 2. Gamma-interferon is a cytokine that enhances immune function. 3. It helps fight infections and regulate inflammation. 4. Pentaxim and Hexacima are combination vaccines. 5. Rifampin is an antibiotic, not an immunomodulator. Summary: - A and B are combination vaccines. - D is an antibiotic. - C is the correct answer as gamma-interferon is an immunomodulator that regulates the immune response.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium is capable of forming spores, which are dormant, resistant structures that help bacteria survive harsh conditions. Staphylococcus aureus (A), Escherichia coli (C), and Neisseria gonorrhoeae (D) do not form spores. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive bacterium that does not produce spores. Escherichia coli is a gram-negative bacterium that also does not form spores. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative bacterium and does not have the ability to form spores. Therefore, the only bacteria among the options that can form spores is Clostridium botulinum.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaerobic. Pulpitis is an inflammatory condition of the dental pulp, often caused by bacterial infection. Anaerobic bacteria are commonly associated with dental infections, making it likely to find them in the inoculated culture medium. Anaerobic bacteria thrive in the absence of oxygen, which is typical of the dental environment. Acid-resistant (B) and acidophilic (C) microorganisms are not specifically linked to pulpitis. Haemolytic (D) microorganisms typically lyse red blood cells, which is not a characteristic feature of bacteria causing pulpitis. Therefore, the most likely microorganisms to be found in the culture medium would be anaerobic bacteria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus or Streptococcus. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive narrow it down to Staphylococcus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Therefore, the likely causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: A: Correct - Staphylococcus aureus fits all the characteristics. B: Incorrect - Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. C: Incorrect - Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. D: Incorrect - Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Loefler. This staining method is used for identifying Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the causative agent of diphtheria. It involves using methylene blue and basic fuchsin to stain the bacteria. The yellow bacilli with blue grains at their ends indicate the characteristic appearance of C. diphtheriae when stained using the Loefler method. Choice A: Ziehl-Nielsen is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Choice B: Kozlovsky is not a standard staining method in microbiology. Choice C: Romanovsky is used for blood smears to identify malaria parasites.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. In the context of a 70-year-old man with angular cheilitis (lesion at the corners of the mouth) and stomatitis, the presence of large ovoid gram-positive cells points towards Candida species, which are yeast fungi. Candida is a common opportunistic pathogen that can cause oral thrush and angular cheilitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as elderly people. Candida fungi are known to appear as large ovoid cells under microscopic examination. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are gram-positive bacteria and are not typically associated with large ovoid cells seen in this case. C: Staphylococci are also gram-positive bacteria and are not known to present as large ovoid cells in this context. D: Neisseria are gram-negative bacteria and are not the usual etiological agents for oral lesions like angular cheilitis.