Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand for?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetry. In the ABCD method for assessing skin lesions, A stands for asymmetry, which refers to whether one half of the lesion looks different from the other half. This is important because asymmetrical lesions are more likely to be cancerous. Actinic (choice A) refers to sun damage, Arcus (choice C) refers to a condition affecting the eyes, and Assessment (choice D) is a general term that does not specifically relate to the characteristics of skin lesions.

Question 2 of 5

The following are known to be causes of hepatitis except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: bacteria. Hepatitis is primarily caused by viruses (such as Hepatitis A, B, C), toxins (like alcohol or certain medications), and chemicals/drugs. Bacteria do not typically cause hepatitis as it is a viral infection that affects the liver. Therefore, choice C is the exception among the listed causes. Viruses directly target liver cells, toxins can damage the liver, and certain chemicals/drugs can lead to liver inflammation. Hence, bacteria do not play a significant role in causing hepatitis.

Question 3 of 5

A patient reports on admission being “very sick” after taking erythromycin in the past. The patient is to receive erythromycin now. Which of the following actions should the nurse take regarding giving the antibiotic?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not give the antibiotic. This is because the patient has a history of being "very sick" after taking erythromycin in the past, indicating a potential allergic reaction or severe adverse effects. The nurse should not administer the antibiotic to prevent harm to the patient. Choice A is incorrect as it can lead to a repeat adverse reaction. Choice C, giving half the dose, still exposes the patient to potential harm. Choice D, discontinuing the antibiotic, is also incorrect as it implies the patient has already started the medication, which should not be the case given the history of adverse effects.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketonic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding should the nurse anticipate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: In HHNS, there is severe hyperglycemia leading to osmotic diuresis. Step 2: Osmotic diuresis causes loss of potassium in urine, leading to hypokalemia. Step 3: Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in HHNS due to excessive urinary loss of potassium. Step 4: Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a below-normal serum potassium level in a client with HHNS. Summary: A: Elevated serum acetone level is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS. B: Serum alkalosis is not typically associated with HHNS. C: Serum ketone bodies are elevated in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS.

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