ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology The Respiratory System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The 8-year-old patient is receiving methylphenidate (Ritalin). The patient's mother tells the nurse that he won't eat while on his medication. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Methylphenidate curbs appetite-giving it post-meals and adding snacks offsets weight loss, per practical management. Depression isn't indicated-appetite loss is a known effect. Appetite stimulants aren't standard. Nutritionists help long-term, not acutely. Post-meal dosing balances efficacy and nutrition, per care.
Question 2 of 5
A 54-year-old man with an attack of gout approximately 4 months ago was placed on allopurinol. He now presents to his primary care physician complaining of a skin rash on his arms. Allopurinol was discontinued 3 months ago. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A 48-year-old woman with 2-year history of rheumatoid arthritis has not had sufficient relief with methotrexate alone. Her physician prescribes etanercept to help control her symptoms. How does etanercept work?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following agents is available as a patch for once-daily use and is likely to provide steady drug levels to treat Alzheimer's disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rivastigmine, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, treats Alzheimer's by increasing acetylcholine, improving cognition. Its transdermal patch delivers steady drug levels daily, minimizing peaks/troughs and reducing GI side effects (e.g., nausea) compared to oral forms, enhancing compliance. Donepezil, memantine, and galantamine are oral, lacking a once-daily patch; donepezil's long half-life mimics steady-state but isn't transdermal. Glatiramer treats MS, not Alzheimer's. Rivastigmine's patch formulation ensures consistent cholinergic enhancement, critical for sustained symptom relief in Alzheimer's, distinguishing it as the optimal choice here.
Question 5 of 5
The client receives estrogen for prostate cancer. He asks the nurse why he is receiving a female hormone. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prostate cancer is androgen-dependent, relying on testosterone and other androgens for growth. Estrogen therapy suppresses pituitary secretion of luteinizing hormone, reducing testicular androgen production, effectively starving the cancer. This hormonal manipulation is a standard approach. Choice A inaccurately suggests direct cell death, not estrogen's mechanism. Choice B overstates testosterone elimination; it's reduced, not eradicated. Choice D misattributes nutrient blockade, unrelated to estrogen's action. The nurse's best response (C) clarifies estrogen's role in androgen suppression, addressing the client's confusion with precision and relevance to his treatment.