ATI RN
Multi Dimensional Care | Exam | Rasmusson Questions
Question 1 of 5
The 65-year-old male client who is complaining of blurred vision reports he thinks his glasses need to be cleaned all the time and he denies any type of eye pain. Which eye disorder should the nurse suspects the clients has?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Cataracts. Cataracts are characterized by a gradual clouding of the lens in the eye, leading to blurred vision. The client's complaint of constantly needing to clean his glasses and the absence of eye pain are indicative of cataracts. Option B) Diabetic retinopathy is unlikely in this case as there is no mention of the client having diabetes, which is a key risk factor for this condition. Option C) Corneal dystrophy affects the cornea, not the lens, and typically presents with symptoms different from those described by the client. Option D) Conjunctivitis is characterized by redness, itching, and discharge in the eye, none of which are mentioned by the client. In an educational context, this question helps reinforce the importance of recognizing common eye disorders based on specific symptoms and history provided by the client. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for effective nursing assessment and intervention in clinical practice.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse assesses an area of skin over a bony prominence. What finding would be most concerning?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the most concerning finding when assessing an area of skin over a bony prominence would be option A) Redness. Redness, also known as erythema, indicates localized inflammation and increased blood flow to the area, which can be a sign of early-stage pressure injury or skin breakdown. This finding is concerning because it suggests that tissue damage may be occurring due to prolonged pressure on the skin, leading to compromised blood flow and potential tissue necrosis. Option B) Non-blanching is incorrect because non-blanching erythema is a more severe sign of tissue damage that does not fade when pressure is applied. It indicates more advanced tissue injury compared to blanching erythema, where the redness fades when pressure is relieved. Option C) Blanching is incorrect because blanching erythema is a less concerning finding as the redness fades when pressure is applied, suggesting that the blood flow is still intact and the skin is not yet compromised. Option D) Warmth is incorrect because while warmth can be associated with inflammation, it is a less specific indicator of tissue damage compared to redness, which directly points towards localized inflammation and potential skin breakdown. Educationally, it is crucial for nurses to recognize the early signs of pressure injuries and skin breakdown to prevent complications in patients, especially those with limited mobility or sensory perception. Regular skin assessments, knowledge of risk factors, and prompt intervention are essential in providing quality care and preventing pressure ulcers. Recognizing the significance of skin findings like redness can help nurses take proactive measures to prevent further tissue damage and promote skin integrity.
Question 3 of 5
A client who is sitting in High-Fowler's position is at risk for what type of injury as the skin layers shift in opposite directions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Shearing injury. When a client is positioned in High-Fowler's position, the skin layers may shift in opposite directions due to gravity and friction. This can lead to shearing forces, where the skin is pulled in different directions, causing damage to the underlying tissues. Shearing injuries are common in individuals who are immobile or have limited mobility, as their skin is more prone to damage from these forces. Option A, Traumatic injury, is incorrect as it does not specifically relate to the shifting of skin layers in opposite directions while in a seated position. Option B, Pressure injury, is also incorrect as it refers to damage caused by pressure on a specific area of the body, not the shearing forces experienced in High-Fowler's position. Option C, Friction injury, is not the most appropriate answer as it does not capture the unique mechanism of injury associated with shearing forces. In an educational context, understanding the risks associated with different positions and their impact on skin integrity is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working with immobile or bedridden patients. Proper positioning techniques and regular skin assessments can help prevent shearing injuries and other complications related to immobility.
Question 4 of 5
What statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the timing of progression of human immunodefiency virus (HIV) to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is option D) "If I am re-exposed to HIV, the progression to AIDS may be faster." This statement reflects a correct understanding of the timing of progression from HIV to AIDS as it acknowledges that reinfection with HIV can accelerate the progression to AIDS. This is a crucial concept in HIV care as repeated exposure to the virus can lead to increased viral load and more rapid disease progression. Option A is incorrect because sexually transmitted infections can indeed impact the progression of HIV to AIDS through various means such as increasing inflammation and viral replication. Option B is also incorrect as diet can influence the immune system's ability to fight off infections, potentially affecting the progression of HIV to AIDS. Option C is incorrect because adherence to medication is essential in slowing down the progression of HIV to AIDS, not speeding it up. This highlights the importance of medication adherence in HIV management. Educationally, understanding the factors that can influence the progression of HIV to AIDS is crucial for individuals living with HIV and healthcare providers. Reinforcing the importance of safe sexual practices, medication adherence, and overall health maintenance can help individuals manage their condition effectively and improve their quality of life.
Question 5 of 5
When providing a routine bed bath, what action does the nurse complete first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In providing a routine bed bath, the nurse would first cleanse the client's face for several important reasons. The face is typically the most visible and sensitive part of the body, so beginning with this area shows respect for the client's dignity and comfort. It also allows the nurse to assess the client's facial skin for any signs of irritation, infection, or other issues that may need attention. Cleansing the client's face also sets the tone for the bed bath, signaling the start of the process and helping the client to feel refreshed and rejuvenated. Additionally, washing the face before other areas helps prevent the spread of bacteria from potentially contaminated areas like the perineal region to the more sensitive facial area. Regarding why the other options are incorrect: - Cleansing the client's feet or hands first may introduce dirt or bacteria to the face, which is a more sensitive area that should be prioritized. - Cleansing the client's perineal area should be done last to minimize the risk of spreading any potential contaminants to other parts of the body, particularly the face. Educationally, this rationale underscores the importance of respecting the client's comfort and dignity, conducting a thorough assessment, and following proper hygiene protocols to ensure the client's safety and well-being during routine care procedures like bed baths.