ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Drugs Classification Questions
Question 1 of 5
Tetracyclins have following unwanted effects:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tetracyclins can lead to gastrointestinal irritation, phototoxicity, hepatotoxicity, anti-anabolic effect, dental hypoplasia, and bone deformities. Gastrointestinal irritation is a common side effect due to direct irritation of the mucosa. Phototoxicity can occur upon exposure to sunlight. Hepatotoxicity refers to liver damage. Anti-anabolic effect can interfere with bone growth. Dental hypoplasia and bone deformities are associated with tetracycline use during tooth development. Choices A, B, and C only mention some of the side effects, while D encompasses all possible unwanted effects of tetracyclins.
Question 2 of 5
All of the following antiviral drugs are antiretroviral agents, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acyclovir. Acyclovir is not an antiretroviral agent, as it is primarily used to treat herpes virus infections. Zidovudine, Zalcitabine, and Didanozine are all antiretroviral drugs used specifically to treat HIV infections. These drugs work by inhibiting the replication of the HIV virus. Acyclovir, on the other hand, works by inhibiting the replication of herpes viruses. Therefore, Acyclovir does not target HIV and is not classified as an antiretroviral agent.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following antianginal drugs would be appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Isosorbide mononitrate is a nitrate that dilates blood vessels, reducing cardiac workload. Step 2: Patient likely has angina due to coronary artery disease, so vasodilation helps improve blood flow to heart. Step 3: Diltiazem, verapamil, and nifedipine are calcium channel blockers that may lower blood pressure and heart rate, but not specifically indicated for angina. Step 4: Diltiazem and verapamil can even worsen angina by reducing heart rate and contractility. Step 5: Nifedipine primarily dilates peripheral arteries and is not as effective for coronary artery vasodilation in angina.
Question 4 of 5
A 55-year-old woman with a long history of poorly controlled essential hypertension had recently added atenolol to her therapeutic regimen. Which of the following was most likely a primary mechanism that mediated the antihypertensive effect of atenolol in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibition of epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that primarily works by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. This results in reduced heart rate, cardiac output, and renin release, leading to decreased blood pressure. A: Dilation of large veins is not the primary mechanism of action of atenolol. It primarily affects the heart and vasculature by blocking beta-receptors. C: While atenolol does block beta receptors in the vascular wall, the primary mechanism of antihypertensive effect is through inhibition of epinephrine release. D: Atenolol does not directly affect sympathetic outflow from the vasomotor area. The main mechanism is through blocking beta-receptors and reducing catecholamine release.
Question 5 of 5
Methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline cause which one of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.