TB in pregnancy predisposes a mother to premature labour due to

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Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

TB in pregnancy predisposes a mother to premature labour due to

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. TB in pregnancy can lead to premature labor due to the fever experienced. Fever increases the risk of premature labor by triggering uterine contractions. Poor maternal appetite (A) and severe anemia (B) may impact the mother's health but are not directly linked to premature labor. Adverse reactions of anti-TB drugs (C) could potentially affect the mother's health but are not a direct cause of premature labor.

Question 2 of 9

Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 causes one of the following

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 leads to Klumpke's palsy due to damage to the lower brachial plexus. This results in weakness of the hand and forearm muscles. Erb's palsy is from injury to C5-C6 roots causing upper brachial plexus damage. Phrenic injury affects the diaphragm due to C3-C5 roots. Radial palsy involves the radial nerve, typically from injury at the spiral groove of the humerus. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly correlates with the specific nerve roots affected in Klumpke's palsy.

Question 3 of 9

Incidental antepartum haemorrhage is also referred to as

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extraplacental haemorrhage. Incidental antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding occurring outside the placenta, such as from the cervix or vaginal walls, before the onset of labor. This is not associated with the placenta itself (intraplacental - choice A). Similarly, it does not occur during labor (intrapartum - choice B) or specifically before term (preterm - choice D). Extraplacental haemorrhage captures the essence of bleeding unrelated to the placenta during the antepartum period.

Question 4 of 9

When caring for a mother following an assisted vaginal delivery, it’s MOST important to remember that

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because additional nursing interventions are necessary to ensure an uncomplicated postpartum period. After an assisted vaginal delivery, the mother may experience increased pain, perineal trauma, and a higher risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Nursing interventions such as pain management, wound care, monitoring for signs of infection, and emotional support are crucial for the mother's recovery. A is incorrect because both vacuum extractors and forceps can cause trauma to the baby and mother's perineum, and the safety of one over the other depends on various factors. B is incorrect as the development of a cephalhematoma is not a normal expected outcome of assisted vaginal delivery and should be monitored and managed appropriately if it occurs. C is incorrect as the use of instruments during childbirth, while not as common as spontaneous vaginal deliveries, is not rare and can be necessary in certain situations to ensure the safety of the mother and baby.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Feminizing adrenal tumors are not always carcinomas, so A is incorrect. Step 2: Virilizing tumors in women can originate from adrenal or extra-adrenal sites, so C is incorrect. Step 3: Virilizing adrenal tumors are usually benign, especially in children, so D is incorrect. Step 4: B is correct as feminizing adrenal tumors are rare but are the most common type of adrenal tumor causing gender symptoms.

Question 6 of 9

Diagnosis of occipito-posterior position:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. External examination can reveal the position of the baby's head. 2. Ultrasound can confirm the baby's position accurately. 3. Physical exam and pelvic exam findings can provide additional information. 4. Combining both methods (A and B) ensures a comprehensive assessment for accurate diagnosis. Summary: - Choice A alone may not provide sufficient information. - Choice B alone may not be as accurate as combined with ultrasound. - Choice C is not specific to diagnosing occipito-posterior position. - Choice D is correct as it combines external examination, ultrasound, and physical exam for accurate diagnosis.

Question 7 of 9

What is the significance of skin-to-skin contact after birth?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because skin-to-skin contact after birth offers multiple benefits. Firstly, it helps stabilize the baby's temperature by utilizing the parent's body heat. Secondly, it promotes bonding between the parent and baby through physical closeness and touch. Finally, it can regulate the baby's heartbeat by providing a calming and reassuring environment. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in highlighting the significance of skin-to-skin contact after birth.

Question 8 of 9

The main feature in the initial stage of shock is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In the initial stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for decreased perfusion by increasing heart rate to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of shock due to inadequate oxygenation. Sweat beads (C) are a non-specific response and not a defining feature of shock. Hypotension (D) typically occurs in the later stages of shock as the body's compensatory mechanisms start to fail. Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent sign of shock, reflecting the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output.

Question 9 of 9

The Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for all of the following patients except those with

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for patients with traumatic brain injury and a GCS of 3 to 8, regardless of the head CT findings. Intracranial pressure monitoring helps in the management of elevated intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. Abnormal head CT findings may indicate the need for immediate intervention, but intracranial pressure monitoring is still recommended for all patients in this GCS range to guide treatment decisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, age > 40 years old, and bradycardia are not factors that would exclude a patient from needing intracranial pressure monitoring in the presence of a GCS of 3 to 8.

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