ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
TB in pregnancy predisposes a mother to premature labour due to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. TB in pregnancy can lead to premature labor due to the fever experienced. Fever increases the risk of premature labor by triggering uterine contractions. Poor maternal appetite (A) and severe anemia (B) may impact the mother's health but are not directly linked to premature labor. Adverse reactions of anti-TB drugs (C) could potentially affect the mother's health but are not a direct cause of premature labor.
Question 2 of 9
The comprehensive serologic assessment of a patient with Cushings syndrome is likely to produce which constellation of findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production leading to sodium retention, potassium loss, and increased protein breakdown. Low sodium and potassium levels along with high BUN are commonly seen in patients with Cushing's syndrome. A: Low potassium and high glucose are possible findings, but high white blood cell count is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome. B: High sodium and polycythemia are not typical findings in Cushing's syndrome, and low BUN is not consistent with the protein breakdown seen in this condition. D: High sodium and high chloride levels can be seen, but high RBCs are not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome.
Question 3 of 9
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCFAHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. The ACCF/AHA recommends cardiac consultation before an operation for patients on antiplatelet therapy to assess the risk of bleeding versus thrombotic events. 2. Cardiac consultation helps determine the necessity of continuing, modifying, or stopping antiplatelet therapy. 3. This individualized approach ensures optimal perioperative management based on the patient's cardiovascular risk profile. 4. Choice A is incorrect as stopping antiplatelet therapy for 10 days can increase the risk of thrombotic events. 5. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the decision-making process without considering the patient's specific risks. 6. Choice D is incorrect because initiating antiplatelet therapy in all high-risk cardiac procedures may not be necessary for every patient.
Question 4 of 9
Congenital retraction of the prepuce, so that the glans is permanently exposed, is known as
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Congenital retraction of the prepuce, leading to permanent glans exposure, describes paraphimosis. This condition occurs when the foreskin is pulled back and cannot return to its normal position, causing pain and swelling. Phimosis (A) is the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans. Hypospadias (C) is a urethral opening on the underside of the penis. Hermaphroditism (D) is a rare condition of having both male and female reproductive organs. Paraphimosis (B) is the specific term for the given scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A student AGACNP just beginning his clinical rotation is observing his preceptor perform a physical survey on a patient who is brought in following a serious motor vehicle accident. The student observes that the physical examination includes rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of the pelvic landmarks. The student knows the patient is being assessed for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peritoneal bleeding. In a patient with a serious motor vehicle accident, a physical examination that includes rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of pelvic landmarks is aimed at assessing for signs of internal bleeding, particularly peritoneal bleeding. Rectovaginal examination can detect blood in the rectouterine pouch, inspection of the urethral meatus can reveal blood at the urethral opening, and palpation of pelvic landmarks can identify tenderness or instability associated with internal bleeding. These findings would be indicative of potential peritoneal bleeding requiring urgent evaluation and management. Summary of other choices: B: Retroperitoneal bleeding - While physical examination findings may include signs such as flank ecchymosis or tenderness, the specific examinations mentioned are not typically performed to assess retroperitoneal bleeding. C: Paresthesia - Paresthesia refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness and
Question 6 of 9
The fetal head retracting against the perineum is a
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Turtle sign. This sign refers to the fetal head retracting against the perineum during delivery. It indicates shoulder dystocia, a complication where the baby's shoulders get stuck after the head is delivered. This can lead to serious complications for both the baby and the mother if not managed promptly. A: Gaskin sign is incorrect as it refers to a position where the mother is on her hands and knees during labor. C: Klumpke sign is incorrect as it is a neurological condition affecting the lower arm and hand. D: Chignon sign is incorrect as it is not a recognized medical term related to childbirth.
Question 7 of 9
Incidental antepartum haemorrhage is also referred to as
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extraplacental haemorrhage. Incidental antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding occurring outside the placenta, such as from the cervix or vaginal walls, before the onset of labor. This is not associated with the placenta itself (intraplacental - choice A). Similarly, it does not occur during labor (intrapartum - choice B) or specifically before term (preterm - choice D). Extraplacental haemorrhage captures the essence of bleeding unrelated to the placenta during the antepartum period.
Question 8 of 9
Outline four (4) causes of obstructed labour:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Fetal macrosomia, malpresentation, and pelvic abnormalities are all known causes of obstructed labor. Fetal macrosomia refers to a large baby, which can lead to difficulty in passing through the birth canal. Malpresentation occurs when the baby is not positioned optimally for delivery, such as breech or transverse positions. Pelvic abnormalities, such as a contracted pelvis, can impede the baby's passage during labor. Therefore, selecting option D is appropriate as it encompasses all the major causes of obstructed labor. Choices A, B, and C are not individually comprehensive enough to cover all potential causes of obstructed labor.
Question 9 of 9
Diagnosis of occipito-posterior position:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. External examination can reveal the position of the baby's head. 2. Ultrasound can confirm the baby's position accurately. 3. Physical exam and pelvic exam findings can provide additional information. 4. Combining both methods (A and B) ensures a comprehensive assessment for accurate diagnosis. Summary: - Choice A alone may not provide sufficient information. - Choice B alone may not be as accurate as combined with ultrasound. - Choice C is not specific to diagnosing occipito-posterior position. - Choice D is correct as it combines external examination, ultrasound, and physical exam for accurate diagnosis.