ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
T. S. is a 31-year-old female who is admitted following a catastrophic industrial accident. She had multiple injuries, and after a 10-day hospital stay that included several operations and attempts to save her, she is declared brain dead. She had an organ donor notation on her drivers license. Which of the following circumstances precludes her from serving as a liver donor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A long history of alcohol use. In this case, T. S. is brain dead and has a donor notation. However, a long history of alcohol use can lead to liver damage, making her liver unsuitable for donation. Encephalopathy (A) is a brain disorder but does not necessarily impact liver suitability. Hepatitis C infection (B) can affect the liver, but it doesn't automatically disqualify someone from being a donor. Biliary cirrhosis (D) refers to a specific liver condition, but it does not preclude someone from being a liver donor unless it has severely damaged the liver beyond use.
Question 2 of 9
What role does the placenta play in managing fetal waste products?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the placenta performs multiple functions in managing fetal waste products. It filters toxins, facilitates nutrient absorption, and removes carbon dioxide. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and the fetus, allowing for the exchange of nutrients and waste products. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in describing the role of the placenta in managing fetal waste products. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the functions that the placenta serves in this context.
Question 3 of 9
The major causative organism of urinary tract infection during puerperium is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Escherichia coli. During puerperium, the most common causative organism of urinary tract infection is E. coli. This is because E. coli is a normal flora in the gastrointestinal tract and can ascend to the urinary tract due to factors like hormonal changes, reduced bladder tone, and trauma during delivery. Staphylococcus pyogenes (Choice A), Anaerobic streptococci (Choice B), and Clostridium welchii (Choice C) are not typically associated with urinary tract infections during puerperium. Staphylococcus pyogenes is more commonly known for causing skin infections, Anaerobic streptococci are not commonly implicated in urinary tract infections, and Clostridium welchii is associated with gas gangrene, not urinary tract infections.
Question 4 of 9
The MAIN aim of encouraging plenty of fluids to a postnatal client with urinary tract trauma is to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Postnatal clients with urinary tract trauma are at risk of dehydration due to increased fluid loss. Step 2: Encouraging plenty of fluids helps maintain hydration levels. Step 3: Proper hydration supports kidney function and aids in flushing out bacteria, reducing infection risk. Step 4: Adequate hydration also promotes tissue healing and prevents complications. Step 5: Therefore, the main aim of encouraging plenty of fluids is to keep the client well hydrated.
Question 5 of 9
Effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because preeclampsia can lead to poor placental anchorage, which results in reduced blood flow to the placenta, leading to severe infarction. This can cause adverse effects on the fetus and the mother. Choice A is incorrect because infarcts and placental abruption are not specific effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system. Choice B is incorrect because lowered vaginal discharge pH and hemorrhage are not typical effects of preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect because congestive cardiac failure and fetal hypoxia are not direct effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system.
Question 6 of 9
Which one of the following features is indicative of an abnormal labour pattern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of the Bandl's ring. This is indicative of an abnormal labor pattern as it may suggest a uterine rupture, which is a serious complication. Bandl's ring is a constriction ring formed between the upper and lower uterine segments due to excessive uterine contractions. It can lead to fetal distress and necessitate immediate medical intervention. A: Presence of the retraction ring is a normal phenomenon during labor, marking the boundary between the lower and upper uterine segments. C: Cervical canal short and thin can be a normal variation in labor and does not necessarily indicate an abnormal pattern. D: Vagina being warm and moist is a common physiological response during labor and does not provide information on the progress or abnormality of labor.
Question 7 of 9
Ms. OReilly is a 69-year-old patient who is having a bowel resection for a malignant tumor of the right colon. She has several chronic medical conditions and takes numerous daily medications, including metoprolol 100 mg daily, warfarin 5 mg daily, vitamin E 200 units daily, and metformin 1000 mg bid. Which of the following regimens is the most appropriate approach to managing her medications preoperatively?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. It is important to manage medications appropriately preoperatively to minimize complications. Metoprolol, a beta blocker, should be continued up until the day of surgery to prevent rebound hypertension or tachycardia. Metformin should be held on the day of surgery to avoid potential lactic acidosis due to its effects on kidney function. Warfarin should be discontinued 5-7 days before surgery to reduce the risk of bleeding. Vitamin E can increase bleeding risk and should be discontinued. Choice A is incorrect as not all medications should be taken until the morning of surgery. Choice C is incorrect as warfarin should be held earlier than 5 days before surgery. Choice D is incorrect as metformin should be held on the day of surgery, regardless of blood sugar levels, to prevent lactic acidosis.
Question 8 of 9
Convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism are confused for:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions can mimic postpartum eclampsia due to similarities in symptoms such as seizures and hypertension. However, the key differentiator is the timing of onset - postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, while amniotic fluid embolism typically occurs during labor or immediately postpartum. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the timing and clinical presentation of amniotic fluid embolism. Antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery, stroke presents with neurological deficits, and pre-existing epilepsy is a chronic condition unrelated to the immediate postpartum period.
Question 9 of 9
enna is a 41-year-old female who presents to the emergency room complaining of sudden hearing loss. She is generally very healthyshe denies any significant medical history, and her only daily medication is a combined oral contraceptive. She does admit that she is just getting over a head cold, but other than that she offers no relevant history. A comprehensive history and physical examination results in a diagnosis of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) of unknown origin. The AGACNP knows that the next step in the patients management should include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperbaric oxygen. SSHL is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy increases oxygen delivery to the inner ear, potentially reversing the hearing loss. Acyclovir (A) is used for viral infections, not SSHL. Furosemide (B) is a diuretic used for treating fluid retention, not SSHL. Warfarin (C) is an anticoagulant and is not indicated for SSHL. In summary, hyperbaric oxygen is the appropriate choice for managing SSHL due to its potential to improve oxygen delivery to the inner ear.