Symptoms consistent with later-stage human immunodeficiency disease (HIV) typically include all of the following except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent vomiting. This is because persistent vomiting is not typically associated with later-stage HIV disease. Night sweats, lymphadenopathy for more than 3 months, and persistent, unexplained fatigue are commonly seen in later-stage HIV. Vomiting may occur in earlier stages due to opportunistic infections, but it is not a hallmark symptom of advanced HIV.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lymph node. A mobile mass that is palpable and moves in multiple directions is characteristic of a lymph node. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that are part of the immune system and can move freely when touched. Incorrect choices: A: Cancer - A cancerous mass would typically be fixed and not mobile. C: Deep scar - Scars are usually fixed and do not move when touched. D: Muscle - Muscles are usually deeper in the body and not typically palpable as a mobile mass.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The purpose of the expanded assessment when using the LAPSS is to determine whether there are other possible causes of the patient's signs and symptoms. This is because LAPSS primarily focuses on identifying stroke symptoms, so the expanded assessment helps rule out other potential conditions. Option A is incorrect because LAPSS does not primarily assess circulation. Option B is incorrect because LAPSS is not specifically designed to determine compartment syndrome. Option D is incomplete and does not provide any information to support it as the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sebaceous cyst. A sebaceous cyst typically presents as a lump underneath the skin that can be squeezed to release a cheesy substance, consistent with Jacob's description. The formation of a prominent dimple when gently pinched is characteristic of a cyst, indicating it is filled with fluid or semi-solid material. Sebaceous cysts are usually benign and can grow slowly over time. Incorrect choices: A: An enlarged lymph node - Unlikely as lymph nodes are typically not associated with cheesy discharge or the formation of a dimple when pinched. C: An actinic keratosis - Unlikely as actinic keratosis is a precancerous skin condition caused by sun exposure, not presenting with cheesy discharge or a dimple. D: A malignant lesion - Unlikely as malignant lesions usually do not produce cheesy discharge and are more aggressive in growth compared to a sebaceous cyst.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute orchitis. Orchitis is inflammation of the testicle that can cause testicular enlargement and tenderness. In this case, the teenager presents with a swollen and sore left testicle, which aligns with the symptoms of orchitis. The patient's history of upper respiratory symptoms suggests a viral infection, which can lead to orchitis. The normal prostate exam and urine analysis rule out prostatitis. Acute epididymitis typically presents with pain and swelling in the epididymis, not the testicle itself. Torsion of the spermatic cord would present with sudden, severe testicular pain and is an emergency requiring immediate surgical intervention.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinal stenosis. The symptoms described suggest neurogenic claudication, which is a hallmark of spinal stenosis. Pain worsening with ambulation and improving with lumbar flexion is characteristic of spinal stenosis due to narrowing of the spinal canal leading to compression of nerves. Ankylosing spondylitis (A) presents with inflammatory back pain and stiffness, not neurogenic claudication. Bursitis (C) involves inflammation of bursae, not typically associated with leg pain and numbness. Cauda equina syndrome (D) presents with sudden-onset severe back pain, urinary retention, and saddle anesthesia, which are not consistent with the described symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults due to its prevalence and ability to cause infections in the lungs. It accounts for a significant portion of pneumonia cases worldwide. Staphylococcus aureus (A) is more commonly associated with healthcare-associated pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumoniae (C) typically causes atypical pneumonia, which tends to be milder and more common in younger individuals. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is more commonly seen in individuals with underlying health conditions or compromised immune systems, rather than in healthy adults with community-acquired pneumonia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Suprapubic. Disorders in the kidneys and ureters typically cause pain in the flank, abdomen, and back due to the location of these organs. The kidneys are located in the flank region, so kidney issues may cause flank pain. Ureters run down towards the bladder, so issues in this area can cause pain in the abdomen and back. Suprapubic pain usually indicates issues with the bladder or lower urinary tract, not the kidneys or ureters. Therefore, suprapubic pain is not typically associated with disorders in the kidneys and ureters.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because atypical, community-acquired pneumonia often presents with subtle symptoms like a low-grade fever and malaise. Clear lung fields on auscultation are typical as atypical pneumonia affects the interstitium rather than the alveoli. Choice B is incorrect as crackles throughout the lung fields are indicative of typical pneumonia affecting the alveoli. Choice C is incorrect because a sore throat is not a typical symptom of atypical pneumonia, and diminished breath sounds are not typically associated with atypical pneumonia. Choice D is incorrect because a temperature of 102°F and dyspnea are more indicative of a more severe pneumonia, and diminished lung sounds are not typically associated with atypical pneumonia.