Symptoms consistent with later-stage human immunodeficiency disease (HIV) typically include all of the following except:

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Question 1 of 9

Symptoms consistent with later-stage human immunodeficiency disease (HIV) typically include all of the following except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent vomiting. This is because persistent vomiting is not typically associated with later-stage HIV disease. Night sweats, lymphadenopathy for more than 3 months, and persistent, unexplained fatigue are commonly seen in later-stage HIV. Vomiting may occur in earlier stages due to opportunistic infections, but it is not a hallmark symptom of advanced HIV.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following complaints best describes lower extremity calf pain associated with peripheral artery disease?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A dull pain or cramp. In peripheral artery disease, calf pain is typically described as a dull ache or cramp due to inadequate blood flow to the muscles during exercise. This pain is known as claudication. Choice A is incorrect as sharp, stabbing pain is not typically associated with peripheral artery disease. Choice C, an electric shock, is more indicative of nerve-related conditions. Choice D, a pulsating pain, is more characteristic of an aneurysm rather than peripheral artery disease.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following is not a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in older adults?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are not known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more commonly associated with antipsychotic medications. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, irritation, and hyponatremia in older adults due to their effects on serotonin levels and platelet function. Extrapyramidal symptoms involve movement disorders like tremors and muscle rigidity, which are not typically seen with SSRIs. Therefore, A is the correct answer.

Question 4 of 9

Which one of the following is most true about the staffing of a typical nursing home?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Certified Nursing Assistants (CNAs) typically provide the majority of direct patient care in nursing homes. CNAs assist with activities of daily living, monitoring patients' health, and providing emotional support. This is true in most nursing homes as they play a crucial role in patient care. Rationale: - A: Most nurses in nursing homes are not necessarily Registered Nurses (RNs), as there are also Licensed Practical Nurses (LPNs) and Certified Nursing Assistants (CNAs) who provide care. - B: LPNs or LVNs may assist with the patient care plan under the supervision of an RN, but they do not typically develop the plan themselves. - D: Staff turnover is a major issue in nursing homes due to various factors such as workload, stress, and burnout among healthcare workers.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following symptoms would be a clinical manifestation noted during the secondary stage of syphilis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. During the secondary stage of syphilis, a rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles is a common clinical manifestation. This rash, known as a syphilitic rash, is a hallmark symptom of secondary syphilis. The rash can also appear on other parts of the body. It is important to note that syphilis progresses through distinct stages, and the secondary stage typically occurs a few weeks to a few months after the initial infection. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: Absence of symptoms - This is incorrect as syphilis does present symptoms, especially during the secondary stage. B: Single painless lesion, chancre on the genital area - This is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage. D: Poor muscle coordination - This symptom is associated with the late or tertiary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage

Question 6 of 9

Acute lymphocytic leukemia is usually diagnosed by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A bone marrow examination. Acute lymphocytic leukemia is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow's ability to produce normal blood cells. A bone marrow examination is necessary to confirm the diagnosis by analyzing the bone marrow cells for abnormality. A complete blood count (choice A) can show abnormalities in blood cell counts but cannot confirm leukemia. Magnetic resonance imaging (choice B) and nuclear bone scan (choice C) are imaging tests that can show bone abnormalities but are not specific for diagnosing leukemia.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following is true of the HPV vaccine?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: It can protect against anogenital lesions. The HPV vaccine can protect against several types of HPV that are known to cause anogenital warts and lesions. This is based on scientific evidence from clinical trials. A: Ideally it should be administered within 3 years of first intercourse - This statement is not accurate. The HPV vaccine is recommended for both males and females between the ages of 9 and 26, regardless of sexual activity. B: It covers against almost every HPV type - This statement is incorrect. While the HPV vaccine covers the most common high-risk HPV types that cause cervical cancer, it does not cover against every HPV type. C: It can be used as adjuvant therapy in cervical cancer - This statement is incorrect. The HPV vaccine is primarily used as a preventive measure to reduce the risk of HPV infection and related health issues, not as a treatment for existing cervical cancer.

Question 8 of 9

A 49-year-old truck driver comes to the emergency room for shortness of breath and swelling in his ankles. He is diagnosed with congestive heart failure and admitted to the hospital. You are the student assigned to do the patient's complete history and physical examination. When you palpate the pulse, what do you expect to feel?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Small amplitude, weak. In congestive heart failure, the heart's ability to pump effectively is compromised, leading to decreased cardiac output. This results in a weakened pulse with reduced amplitude. Palpating a small, weak pulse in this patient is expected due to poor cardiac function. Choices A and C are incorrect because a large, forceful pulse is not expected in congestive heart failure, and a normal pulse may not reflect the compromised cardiac function. Choice D, bigeminal, refers to an abnormal rhythm characterized by every other heartbeat being premature and is not typically associated with congestive heart failure.

Question 9 of 9

What intervention does the American College of Rheumatology recommend as first-line therapy for osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or something else?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exercise and weight loss. The American College of Rheumatology recommends this intervention as first-line therapy for osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis due to its proven benefits in reducing pain, improving joint function, and overall quality of life. Exercise helps strengthen muscles around the joints, improve flexibility, and reduce stiffness. Weight loss can also alleviate pressure on the joints, especially in weight-bearing joints. A: Diagnostic workup to rule out rheumatoid arthritis - This is not the first-line therapy but rather a step in the diagnostic process. B: NSAID use at the lowest effective dose - While NSAIDs may help with pain management, they are not recommended as the first-line therapy due to potential side effects. C: Acetaminophen use up to 4 grams/day - Acetaminophen can be used for pain relief, but it is not as effective as exercise and weight loss in managing osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis symptoms

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