Symptoms consistent with later-stage human immunodeficiency disease (HIV) typically include all of the following except:

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Question 1 of 9

Symptoms consistent with later-stage human immunodeficiency disease (HIV) typically include all of the following except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent vomiting. This is because persistent vomiting is not typically associated with later-stage HIV disease. Night sweats, lymphadenopathy for more than 3 months, and persistent, unexplained fatigue are commonly seen in later-stage HIV. Vomiting may occur in earlier stages due to opportunistic infections, but it is not a hallmark symptom of advanced HIV.

Question 2 of 9

Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are associated with:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B is correct: Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are classic signs of infective endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless erythematous macules on palms/soles, petechiae are small red/purple spots due to microemboli, and Osler nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers/toes. These findings indicate systemic embolization and immune complex deposition in infective endocarditis. Other choices are incorrect as they do not typically present with these specific dermatologic findings.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is caring for an older adult who is having difficulty with swallowing. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide thickened liquids and soft foods. This intervention helps prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of food or liquids entering the airway. Thickened liquids are easier to control while swallowing, decreasing the chance of aspiration. Soft foods are also easier to chew and swallow, further reducing the risk. Choice A is incorrect because eating quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after meals can actually increase the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect as large meals can increase the likelihood of swallowing difficulties and aspiration.

Question 4 of 9

Guidelines for the primary prevention of stroke recommend that aspirin be used in which one of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because guidelines for primary stroke prevention recommend using aspirin in individuals whose risk of stroke is high enough for the benefits to outweigh the risks. This is based on assessing individual risk factors such as age, hypertension, diabetes, smoking, and history of cardiovascular diseases to determine if the potential benefits of aspirin therapy in reducing the risk of stroke outweigh the potential risks such as gastrointestinal bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin should not be used regardless of risk level, based on gender, or in specific populations without considering individual risk factors to ensure the benefits outweigh the risks.

Question 5 of 9

What was the primary significance of the Crookes tube in the development of modern imaging technologies?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: It was the first device to produce X-rays. The Crookes tube, invented by William Crookes, was crucial in the development of modern imaging technologies because it was the first device to produce X-rays. X-rays revolutionized medical diagnostics and imaging, leading to significant advancements in healthcare. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary significance of the Crookes tube was its role in producing X-rays, not demonstrating electromagnetic radiation principles, paving the way for the electron microscope, or advancements in nuclear medicine.

Question 6 of 9

A patient with a history of chronic smoking presents with a persistent cough and weight loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lung cancer. The patient's symptoms of chronic smoking, persistent cough, and weight loss are concerning for malignancy. Lung cancer is a common consequence of long-term smoking and can present with these symptoms. Chronic bronchitis (A) typically presents with cough and mucus production but not necessarily weight loss. Emphysema (C) is characterized by shortness of breath and is less likely to cause weight loss. Asthma (D) usually presents with wheezing and shortness of breath, not typically weight loss.

Question 7 of 9

Bill, a 55-year-old man, presents with pain in his epigastrium which lasts for 30 minutes or more at a time and has started recently. Which of the following should be considered?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Bill's symptoms of epigastric pain lasting 30 minutes or more can be indicative of peptic ulcer, pancreatitis, or myocardial ischemia. Peptic ulcer can cause epigastric pain, pancreatitis presents with severe epigastric pain, and myocardial ischemia can manifest as epigastric discomfort. Considering all these possibilities is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all potential causes of Bill's symptoms. It is important to consider a broad differential diagnosis to ensure comprehensive evaluation and management.

Question 8 of 9

A patient with alcoholism is brought in with confusion. You ask him to "stop traffic" with his palms and notice that every few seconds his palms suddenly move toward the floor. What does this indicate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic problems. The patient's inability to maintain sustained upward hand posture indicates asterixis, a sign of metabolic encephalopathy commonly seen in patients with liver failure due to alcoholism. This is caused by metabolic disturbances affecting the brain's function, leading to confusion and motor abnormalities. It is not indicative of a stroke (A), carpal tunnel syndrome (C), or severe fatigue and weakness (D), as they do not typically present with asterixis or the described palm movements.

Question 9 of 9

A 32-year-old warehouse worker presents for evaluation of low back pain. He notes a sudden onset of pain after lifting a set of boxes that were heavier than usual. He also states that he has numbness and tingling in the left leg. He wants to know if he needs to be off of work. What test should you perform to assess for a herniated disc?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Straight-leg raise. This test is used to assess for herniated disc by stretching the sciatic nerve. A positive test is indicated by reproduction of leg pain when the leg is raised between 30 to 70 degrees. This suggests nerve root irritation, common in herniated disc. A: Leg-length test - This test is used to assess for leg length discrepancy, not herniated disc. C: Tinel's test - This test is used to assess for nerve compression, typically in carpal tunnel syndrome, not specifically for herniated disc. D: Phalen's test - This test is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome, not herniated disc.

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