Sustained use of this drug results in increased plasma urate concentrations:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sustained use of furosemide and acetazolamide can lead to increased plasma urate concentrations. Furosemide inhibits uric acid secretion, while acetazolamide impairs renal excretion of uric acid. Therefore, both drugs can result in elevated plasma urate levels. Choice C is correct. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide does not decrease plasma urate concentrations. Choice B is incorrect because acetazolamide does not lower plasma urate concentrations. Choice D is incorrect as both drugs can increase plasma urate levels.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase. Rifampin selectively inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, specifically the DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, leading to the suppression of RNA synthesis. This disrupts bacterial protein production, ultimately causing bacterial cell death. Incorrect answers: A: Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis - Rifampin does not target mycolic acid synthesis, which is specific to mycobacteria. C: Inhibition of topoisomerase II - Rifampin does not target topoisomerase II, which is involved in DNA replication and repair. D: Inhibition of cAMP synthesis - Rifampin does not inhibit cAMP synthesis, which is a signaling molecule involved in various cellular processes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is B: Praziquantel. Praziquantel is the drug of choice for treating cestodosis due to its high efficacy against tapeworms. It works by causing paralysis in the worms, leading to their detachment from the intestinal wall and subsequent expulsion from the body. Piperazine (A) is used for roundworm infections, not cestodosis. Pyrantel (C) is effective against intestinal nematode infections, not tapeworms. Ivermectin (D) is mainly used for treating parasitic infections caused by roundworms and mites, but it is not the first-line treatment for cestodosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The diuretic drug causes increased urine output, leading to electrolyte imbalances characterized by low levels of potassium (hypoKalemia) and low levels of magnesium (hypoMagnesemia). This pattern is consistent with profile P. Choice B is incorrect because it suggests high potassium levels which would not be expected with diuretic use. Choice C is incorrect as it indicates high sodium levels which would typically be decreased with diuretic therapy. Choice D is incorrect as it shows normal electrolyte levels which would not be expected with diuretic-induced electrolyte imbalances.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upregulation of hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors. This action is most likely to mediate the therapeutic effect of both drugs in the patient's disease because it would increase the clearance of LDL cholesterol from the bloodstream, leading to decreased cholesterol levels. By upregulating LDL receptors on hepatocytes, more LDL particles are taken up by the liver, reducing circulating LDL levels and lowering the risk of cardiovascular disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly address the mechanism of action of the drugs in lowering cholesterol levels. Decreased intestinal reabsorption of bile acids (Choice A) may affect cholesterol absorption but is not the primary mechanism of action for most cholesterol-lowering drugs. Decreased conversion of cholesterol to bile acids (Choice B) and decreased synthesis of cholesterol by the liver (Choice C) do not target the clearance of LDL cholesterol from the bloodstream, which is the key therapeutic goal in managing hyperchole