ATI RN
Test Bank Physical Examination and Health Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
Susanne is a 27-year-old who has had headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue for the last 2 months. You have completed a thorough history, examination, and laboratory workup but have not found a cause. What would your next action be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Since the patient, Susanne, has been experiencing headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue for the last 2 months, and a thorough history, examination, and laboratory workup have not revealed a definitive cause, the next step would be to screen for depression. Depression can present with physical symptoms such as headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue. It is important to consider mental health factors that could be contributing to Susanne's symptoms before proceeding with further referrals to specialists. Screening for depression would help in determining if psychological factors are playing a role in her physical symptoms.
Question 2 of 5
The following information is best placed in which category? "The patient was treated for an asthma exacerbation in the hospital last year; the patient has never been intubated."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The information provided about the patient being treated for an asthma exacerbation and not being intubated falls under the category of adult illnesses. Asthma is a common respiratory condition that affects people of various ages but is more prevalent in adults. The fact that the patient was treated for an asthma exacerbation and has not required intubation indicates a relevant medical history related to adult illnesses and respiratory conditions. This information would be considered when evaluating and managing the patient's current health status and potential risks related to respiratory issues.
Question 3 of 5
A middle-aged man comes in because he has noticed multiple small, blood-red, raised lesions over his anterior chest and abdomen for the past several months. They are not painful and he has not noted any bleeding or bruising. He is concerned this may be consistent with a dangerous condition. What should you do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation of multiple small, blood-red, raised lesions over the anterior chest and abdomen in a middle-aged man raises concern for a condition known as cherry angiomas. Cherry angiomas are common benign vascular growths often seen in middle-aged and older individuals. They are typically asymptomatic and do not require treatment unless they are bothersome to the patient cosmetically.
Question 4 of 5
Induration along the ventral surface of the penis suggests which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Peyronie's disease is a condition characterized by the formation of fibrous scar tissue in the penis, leading to the development of plaques or indurations along the shaft of the penis, typically on the ventral surface. These plaques can cause penile curvature, pain, and erectile dysfunction. Urethral stricture, testicular carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts are not typically associated with indurations along the ventral surface of the penis.
Question 5 of 5
A 55-year-old married homemaker comes to your clinic, complaining of 6 months of vaginal itching and discomfort with intercourse. She has not had a discharge and has had no pain with urination. She has not had a period in over 2 years. She has no other symptoms. Her past medical history consists of removal of her gallbladder. She denies use of tobacco, alcohol, and illegal drugs. Her mother has breast cancer, and her father has coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, and Alzheimer's disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. There is no lymphadenopathy with palpation of the inguinal nodes. Visualization of the vulva shows dry skin but no lesions or masses. The labia are somewhat smaller than usual. Speculum examination reveals scant discharge, and the vaginal walls are red, dry, and bleed easily. Bimanual examination is unremarkable. The KOH whiff test produces no unusual odor and there are no clue cells on the wet prep. What form of vaginitis is this patient most likely to have?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with atrophic vaginitis, also known as vaginal atrophy. This condition typically occurs in postmenopausal women due to a decrease in estrogen levels, leading to thinning, drying, and inflammation of the vaginal walls. Symptoms of atrophic vaginitis include vaginal dryness, itching, discomfort with intercourse, and sometimes light bleeding after intercourse. The absence of vaginal discharge and the presence of vaginal dryness and bleeding easily upon examination suggest atrophic vaginitis as the most likely cause in this patient. Other causes of vaginitis such as Trichomonas vaginitis, Candida vaginitis, and bacterial vaginosis typically present with different symptoms and findings on examination.