ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Surgical induction of labor refers to the use of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sweeping of membranes and amniotomy. 1. Sweeping of membranes involves manually separating the amniotic sac from the lower part of the uterus, stimulating the release of prostaglandins to induce labor. 2. Amniotomy is the artificial rupture of membranes, which can accelerate labor by releasing amniotic fluid and initiating contractions. 3. These methods are commonly used for surgical induction of labor due to their effectiveness and minimal invasiveness compared to other options. Incorrect choices: A: Cytotec is a medication used for labor induction, but mechanical cervical dilatation is not a standard surgical method. C: Buscopan is used for relaxation of smooth muscle and not commonly used for labor induction. D: Syntocinon is a synthetic form of oxytocin used to induce or augment labor, but it is not typically used in surgical induction methods.
Question 2 of 9
Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because inflammatory polyps are indeed considered precancerous, meaning they have the potential to develop into cancer over time. By having regular colonoscopies every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be detected early and removed before they have a chance to become malignant. This approach helps in preventing the progression of polyps to cancerous lesions, thus reducing the risk of developing colon cancer. Choice B is incorrect because while family history is a risk factor for colon cancer, the presence of inflammatory polyps in Mr. Costigan should not be overlooked or solely attributed to family history. Choice C is incorrect because all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, including inflammatory polyps. Ignoring their presence can lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect because at this stage, the primary focus should be on surveillance and prevention through regular colonoscopies, rather than jumping into discussions about aggressive treatment options.
Question 3 of 9
Sara S. is a 41-year-old patient who has just had a bone marrow transplant. The AGACNP knows that which medication will be used to decrease her risk of graft-versus-host reaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cyclosporine. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used post-bone marrow transplant to prevent graft-versus-host disease. It works by inhibiting T-cell activation and proliferation, reducing the risk of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin (A) is used for passive immunization, not prevention of graft-versus-host reaction. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections post-transplant, not graft-versus-host disease. Systemic corticosteroids (D) may be used to treat graft-versus-host disease but are not the first-line prophylactic medication.
Question 4 of 9
Specific management for incomplete uterine rupture:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because immediate cesarean is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Monitoring for signs of shock is essential to detect any deterioration in the mother's condition. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the mother's hemodynamic status. Option B is incorrect as observation alone may delay necessary interventions. Option C is partially correct as immediate cesarean is necessary but does not address monitoring for shock and fluid resuscitation. Option D is incorrect as continuous monitoring alone is insufficient to manage incomplete uterine rupture.
Question 5 of 9
When a hand/foot lies alongside the presenting part, the presentation is said to be
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Compound. When a hand or foot lies alongside the presenting part during childbirth, it is called a compound presentation. This can be a complication as it increases the risk of the presenting part not fitting through the birth canal properly. A: Footling presentation occurs when the baby's foot or feet are the first to emerge from the birth canal. B: Transverse presentation is when the baby is lying sideways in the uterus. D: Cephalic presentation is the ideal position for vaginal delivery, with the baby's head down and ready to be born.
Question 6 of 9
The appropriate time to perform external cephalic version in a breech presentation is at
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A): At 36 weeks, the baby has enough room to move, reducing risks of complications during external cephalic version. Earlier intervention also allows for possible repeat attempts if needed. This timing aligns with guidelines for optimal success rates. Summary of other choices: B: 38 weeks may be too late as the baby may have less space to turn. C: 42 weeks is post-term and poses risks for both the baby and the mother. D: 40 weeks is close to full term and may not allow for adequate time for successful version.
Question 7 of 9
A student AGACNP just beginning his clinical rotation is observing his preceptor perform a physical survey on a patient who is brought in following a serious motor vehicle accident. The student observes that the physical examination includes rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of the pelvic landmarks. The student knows the patient is being assessed for
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Retroperitoneal bleeding. The physical survey described focuses on assessing for internal bleeding within the retroperitoneal space following a serious motor vehicle accident. The rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of pelvic landmarks help evaluate for signs of pelvic fracture and internal bleeding. These assessments help identify potential sources of retroperitoneal bleeding, which can be a life-threatening complication of trauma. Peritoneal bleeding (choice A) involves bleeding within the abdominal cavity, which is less likely in this scenario. Paresthesia (choice C) refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, which are not typically assessed through physical examination in this context. Pelvic fracture (choice D) is a possible outcome of trauma but does not directly assess for retroperitoneal bleeding.
Question 8 of 9
The term used to describe a situation whereby the fetal lie keeps varying after 36 gestational weeks is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unstable lie. After 36 weeks of gestation, the fetal lie should typically be consistent. An unstable lie refers to a situation where the fetal lie keeps changing position, indicating a potential complication. This can lead to difficulties during labor and delivery. Summary: B: Compound lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is in an abnormal position, such as breech or transverse, alongside another part of the body presenting first. C: Multiple lie - Not a recognized medical term. D: Transverse lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is positioned horizontally across the uterus, which can complicate delivery.
Question 9 of 9
What are the complications associated with a high-risk pregnancy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. High-risk pregnancies are associated with various complications, including preterm birth, gestational diabetes, and preeclampsia. Preterm birth can lead to developmental issues for the baby. Gestational diabetes affects the mother's and baby's health. Preeclampsia can result in high blood pressure and organ damage. Choosing D as the correct answer encompasses all these complications, highlighting the comprehensive nature of risks in high-risk pregnancies. Choices A, B, and C alone do not cover all the potential complications, making them individually incorrect.