Superficial bladder cancer can be treated by direct instillation of the antineoplastic antibiotic agent mitomycin (Mutamycin). This process is termed:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Intravesical administration involves the direct instillation of medication into the bladder, which is a common method for treating superficial bladder cancer. This approach allows high concentrations of the drug, such as mitomycin, to come into direct contact with the cancerous cells lining the bladder, minimizing systemic side effects. Intraventricular and intrathecal administrations are used for delivering drugs to the brain and spinal cord, respectively, while intravascular administration refers to intravenous delivery. Intravesical administration is specifically designed for bladder conditions, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Vancomycin, a glycopeptide antibiotic, is critical for treating MRSA but carries risks of hypersensitivity reactions (e.g., rashes) and nephrotoxicity (e.g., reduced urine output). The nurse's priority when observing an upper body rash and decreased urine output is to hold the next dose and notify the physician . This action prevents further drug administration that could worsen a potential allergic reaction or kidney damage, both serious adverse effects requiring immediate medical evaluation. An X-ray might assess lung involvement in severe cases but isn't the first step for these symptoms. An antihistamine could treat mild itching but risks masking a systemic reaction, delaying critical care. A urine specimen might confirm renal issues but doesn't address the urgency of stopping the drug. Holding the dose ensures patient safety while awaiting physician guidance, aligning with nursing protocols for adverse drug reactions, making A the most prudent and timely action.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A decreased hypertensive effect can occur if a beta-selective adrenergic blocking agent is used in combination with NSAIDs. If this combination is used, the patient should be monitored closely and dosage adjustments made. Antibiotics, oral contraceptives, and antifungal agents are not known to have a drug-drug interaction. The nurse should educate the patient about potential interactions and advise them to consult their healthcare provider before starting any new medications.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Oxymetazoline acts fast; adherence prevents rebound . Days is wrong. D ensures safe use, making it key.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Typical antipsychotics block dopamine D2 receptors, causing extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) like parkinsonism due to dopamine-acetylcholine imbalance in the basal ganglia. Drugs alleviating EPS often restore this balance. Drug A strongly activates dopamine receptors, mimicking dopamine and potentially countering the blockade, but excessive activation risks psychosis. Drug B moderately boosts dopamine and GABA, offering some benefit but less specificity. Drug C potently blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, reducing cholinergic overactivity that emerges from dopamine depletion, a well-established approach (e.g., benztropine) for EPS relief without worsening psychosis. Drug D enhances GABA, unrelated to EPS mechanisms. Drug E mildly activates dopamine and GABA, insufficient for robust relief. Blocking muscarinic receptors directly addresses the cholinergic excess, making it the most effective and clinically validated strategy for EPS management.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Buspirone, an anxiolytic, requires 2-4 weeks for effect and is dosed thrice daily , showing understanding. Immediate relief is false'it's not a benzo. Alcohol worsens anxiety. It's non-sedating . Thrice-daily dosing aligns with buspirone's steady-state need, key in anxiety where consistency matters, making B the correct statement.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: While Propranolol is commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and certain heart-related issues, it is also used off-label for the treatment of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Propranolol has shown efficacy in reducing the intensity of emotional memories and symptoms associated with PTSD by blocking the effects of stress hormones. It is believed to help alleviate symptoms such as anxiety and hyperarousal in individuals with PTSD. However, it is important to note that the off-label use of Propranolol for PTSD should only be done under the guidance and supervision of a healthcare professional.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Articaine is an amide type of local anesthetic. Local anesthetics can be classified into two main categories: esters and amides. Articaine belongs to the amide group of local anesthetics, along with lidocaine, bupivacaine, and others. Amide local anesthetics tend to have longer duration of action and are less likely to cause allergic reactions compared to ester local anesthetics. In the given choices, Procaine, Amethocaine, and Benzocaine are ester-type local anesthetics, while Cocaine is a unique example of a local anesthetic with mixed properties.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Valproate is an anticonvulsant medication commonly used to treat seizures, epilepsy, and bipolar disorder. It works by increasing levels of the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain and also affects other neurotransmitters. Therefore, the expected outcome of taking Valproate is to decrease seizure activity by stabilizing abnormal electrical activity in the brain.