ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Students in the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course are expected to achieve entry-level competencies for which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medical-surgical nursing. In the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course, students are expected to achieve entry-level competencies in medical-surgical nursing, which includes caring for adult patients who are acutely ill or recovering from surgery. Obstetrics and newborn nursing (choice B), pediatric nursing (choice C), and trauma nursing (choice D) are specialized areas that may not be covered in the entry-level competencies of the practical nurse course.
Question 2 of 5
A client who _____ diet requires _____ amounts of vitamin C.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clients who smoke require more vitamin C due to increased oxidative stress and depletion of vitamin C. Smoking leads to the generation of free radicals in the body, causing oxidative stress and consuming higher levels of antioxidants like vitamin C. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the increased need for vitamin C as seen in smokers.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. What clinical finding does the nurse expect the client to exhibit?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, clients commonly exhibit immobile posturing, where they may maintain a fixed position for extended periods. This could include holding rigid poses or remaining motionless. Choice A, 'Crying,' is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Choice B, 'Self-mutilation,' refers to a different behavior seen in some mental health conditions but is not a characteristic feature of catatonic schizophrenia. Choice D, 'Repetitive activities,' does not align with the typical presentation of catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by motor abnormalities such as immobility rather than engaging in purposeful repetitive movements.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure and requires immediate assessment. Choice A is not as urgent as an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse. Choice B, a client with coronary artery disease wanting to ambulate, does not present an immediate concern compared to a potential heart failure indicated by an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable and does not require immediate attention when compared to a potential heart failure situation signified by an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. Which is the order of basic CPR?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order of basic CPR is to first ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess responsiveness. Next, call for help and start CPR with chest compressions, followed by checking the airway and giving rescue breaths. Choice B is incorrect as giving rescue breaths is usually done after the initial chest compressions. Choice C is incorrect as looking, listening, and feeling for breathing comes after starting compressions. Choice D is incorrect as chest compressions are usually the first step in basic CPR.
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