Steve has just seen a 5-year-old girl who wheezes when exposed to cats. The patient's family history is positive for asthma. You think the child most likely has asthma. What have you just accomplished?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: By connecting the patient's presenting symptoms (wheezing when exposed to cats) and family history of asthma, you have identified asthma as the most likely diagnosis for the 5-year-old girl. This initial conclusion, based on the available information, is known as a working diagnosis. Further evaluation and testing may be required to confirm the diagnosis, but at this stage, you have established a preliminary understanding of the likely condition affecting the patient.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of visual acuity, the numbers in the ratio 20/100 represent a comparison between the patient's vision and normal vision. Specifically, a visual acuity of 20/100 means that the patient can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 100 feet. This indicates that the patient's vision is reduced, as she needs to be closer to see the same level of detail compared to someone with normal vision.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Leaning forward in the upright position increases venous return and systemic vascular resistance, which can help accentuate the intensity of aortic regurgitation murmur. This position helps to bring the heart closer to the chest wall, making the murmur easier to auscultate and potentially increasing its intensity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A subconjunctival hemorrhage is a common and benign condition characterized by blood in the space between the conjunctiva and sclera of the eye. The condition often presents as a painless, sharply demarcated area of redness on the white part of the eye, typically without associated discharge or visual disturbances. In this case, the absence of eye pain, discharge, visual disturbances, and clear cornea make subconjunctival hemorrhage the most likely diagnosis. The history of forceful coughing with a recent cold is also consistent with the increased intraocular pressure leading to a rupture of a small blood vessel, resulting in the hemorrhage. Treatment is not usually required as the condition is self-limiting and resolves on its own over time.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most likely cause of neck pain in this scenario is a cervical sprain. A cervical sprain is an injury to the ligaments in the neck as a result of sudden force or trauma, such as a motor vehicle collision. The symptoms of a cervical sprain typically include pain, stiffness in the neck, and muscle spasm. The fact that the patient has pain and spasm over the paraspinous muscles on one side of the neck, along with pain during active range of motion, is characteristic of a sprain. It is important to consider this diagnosis in individuals who have recently experienced trauma to the neck region. Treatment for a cervical sprain usually includes pain management, rest, and gentle stretching exercises to help with recovery.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The closed fist gesture over the sternum to describe chest pain is a typical characteristic of angina pectoris. Angina pectoris is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle does not receive enough oxygen-rich blood. The gesture of clenching a fist over the sternum is often used to describe the tight, squeezing, or pressure-like discomfort experienced with angina. This type of chest pain is typically triggered by physical or emotional stress and is relieved by rest or medications like nitroglycerin. Considering the patient's age, smoking history, and the description of the chest pain gesture, angina pectoris should be a top consideration in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Urticaria, commonly known as hives, typically presents as raised, red, and itchy welts or wheals that can appear and disappear in various locations on the skin. Each lesion tends to last for many minutes before resolving and may be associated with itching or a burning sensation. Urticaria is often triggered by an allergic reaction to food, medications, insect bites, or other substances. The clinical presentation described in the question, involving an itchy rash that appears and disappears in different areas, is consistent with urticaria.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The description of dark, granular material resembling coffee grounds in the vomitus suggests upper gastrointestinal bleeding. One common cause of upper GI bleeding is a peptic ulcer, which can present with symptoms such as vomiting blood or coffee ground material. Peptic ulcers can develop in the stomach or the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum). Risk factors for peptic ulcers include infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria, the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoking, and alcohol consumption. Prompt evaluation and management are necessary in cases of upper GI bleeding to address the underlying cause and prevent complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The right ventricle is the only chamber of the heart that can be assessed by palpation during a cardiac examination. The right ventricle is located close to the sternum on the anterior chest wall, making it accessible for palpation. By palpating the area near the lower left sternal border, just beside the sternum, a healthcare provider can assess the size and function of the right ventricle. It is important to note that the other chambers of the heart (left atrium and right atrium) are not typically assessed by palpation due to their deeper location within the chest cavity. The sinus node, which is responsible for generating the heart's electrical impulses, is also not directly palpable during a cardiac examination.