ATI RN
microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Staphylococci and streptococci are best classified in the group of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: gram-positive cocci. Staphylococci and streptococci are both types of bacteria that have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell walls, which retains the crystal violet stain in the Gram staining process, making them appear purple under a microscope, hence classified as gram-positive cocci. Choice B: gram-negative cocci is incorrect as staphylococci and streptococci are not classified as gram-negative bacteria based on their cell wall structure. Choice C: spirochetes is incorrect as spirochetes are spiral-shaped bacteria with unique motility mechanisms, distinct from the spherical shape of cocci. Choice D: anaerobic gram-negative cocci is incorrect as staphylococci and streptococci are not classified as anaerobic bacteria and do not have the typical characteristics of gram-negative cocci.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with a wound infection had Gram-positive cocci in clusters isolated from a wound culture. The organism was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus species. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive characteristics match with Staphylococcus aureus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of wound infections due to its virulence factors. 4. Other choices are incorrect: B) S. epidermidis is coagulase-negative and a common contaminant, C) S. pyogenes is catalase-negative, D) Enterococcus faecalis is not typically associated with wound infections.
Question 3 of 9
Tularemia is most often a:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zoonosis. Tularemia is primarily a zoonotic disease, meaning it is transmitted from animals to humans. The bacterium that causes tularemia, Francisella tularensis, commonly infects animals like rabbits, rodents, and ticks, which serve as reservoir hosts. Humans can get infected through direct contact with infected animals, insect bites, or contaminated water or soil. This zoonotic nature of tularemia distinguishes it from anthroponosis (A), which is transmitted only between humans, and sapronosis (C), which is transmitted through non-living environmental sources. Choice D is incorrect because there is a correct answer, which is zoonosis.
Question 4 of 9
Which is not part of the normal skin microflora
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: serratia spp. This is because serratia spp. are not typically found in the normal skin microflora. Normal skin microflora primarily consist of bacteria such as diphtheroids, alpha-hemolytic streptococci, and epidermidis. Serratia spp. are more commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections rather than being a part of the skin's natural bacterial flora. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are commonly found in the normal skin microflora.
Question 5 of 9
Examination of a child revealed some whitish spots looking like coagulated milk on the mucous membrane of his cheeks and tongue. Analysis of smears revealed gram-positive oval yeast-like cells. What causative agents are they?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida. The whitish spots resembling coagulated milk on the mucous membranes are characteristic of oral thrush, a condition caused by Candida species. Candida is a gram-positive oval yeast-like fungus commonly found in the oral cavity. Staphylococci (B) are gram-positive cocci, not yeast-like cells. Diphtheria bacillus (C) causes diphtheria, not oral thrush. Actinomycetes (D) are filamentous bacteria, not yeast-like cells typically seen in oral thrush. Therefore, A is the correct answer based on the clinical presentation and microscopic findings.
Question 6 of 9
A 30 y.o. patient is diagnosed with amebic dysentery. This diagnosis was bacteriologically confirmed. Name the preparation for its treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Amebic dysentery is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, not bacteria. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating this parasitic infection. It works by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite, leading to its death. Mebendazole (B) is used to treat certain worm infections, not amebic dysentery. Itrakonazole (C) is an antifungal medication and not effective against parasites. Furacillin (D) is an antibacterial agent and not suitable for treating parasitic infections like amebic dysentery.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured revealing Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium fits the description of Gram-negative diplococci that are oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria meningitidis commonly causes pneumonia and meningitis. Choice B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Choice C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Choice D: Haemophilus influenzae is not fermentative and typically appears as pleomorphic rods, not diplococci.
Question 8 of 9
A sputum smear from a patient with pneumonia revealed Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends surrounded by capsules. What microorganism is most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends indicate Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. Presence of capsules supports the likelihood of S. pneumoniae. 3. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. 4. Klebsiella pneumoniae is Gram-negative and does not form diplococci. 5. Neisseria meningitidis typically causes meningitis, not pneumonia. 6. Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive but does not typically present as diplococci in pneumonia cases.
Question 9 of 9
A subacute toxic effect occurs when the adverse drug effect occurs:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: after repeated exposure for days. Subacute toxic effects typically manifest after a period of time that is longer than immediate (A) or acute (B) effects but shorter than chronic effects (D). This duration of days aligns with the definition of subacute, which refers to effects that occur gradually over a relatively short time frame. It is important to differentiate between the timing of toxic effects to accurately assess the potential harm caused by a substance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the characteristic time frame associated with subacute toxic effects.