Staphylococci and streptococci are best classified in the group of:

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Question 1 of 9

Staphylococci and streptococci are best classified in the group of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: gram-positive cocci. Staphylococci and streptococci are both types of bacteria that have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell walls, which retains the crystal violet stain in the Gram staining process, making them appear purple under a microscope, hence classified as gram-positive cocci. Choice B: gram-negative cocci is incorrect as staphylococci and streptococci are not classified as gram-negative bacteria based on their cell wall structure. Choice C: spirochetes is incorrect as spirochetes are spiral-shaped bacteria with unique motility mechanisms, distinct from the spherical shape of cocci. Choice D: anaerobic gram-negative cocci is incorrect as staphylococci and streptococci are not classified as anaerobic bacteria and do not have the typical characteristics of gram-negative cocci.

Question 2 of 9

A microscope that provides a three-dimensional image of a specimen is a

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: scanning electron microscope. A scanning electron microscope provides a three-dimensional image of a specimen by scanning a focused electron beam across the surface of the specimen, detecting the electrons that are emitted from the surface, and creating a detailed image. This is achieved through the detection of secondary electrons, backscattered electrons, and X-rays emitted from the specimen surface. A dark-field microscope (choice A) utilizes oblique lighting to enhance contrast and is not specifically designed to provide a 3D image. A transmission electron microscope (choice B) uses a beam of electrons transmitted through a specimen to create a 2D image at high magnification. A bright-field microscope (choice C) is a basic microscope that illuminates a specimen with uniform light and does not provide a 3D image like a scanning electron microscope does.

Question 3 of 9

Reassortment of gene segments can occur in one of the following families:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Family Reoviridae. Reassortment of gene segments occurs in segmented viruses like Reoviruses. In Reoviridae, each segment encodes a specific protein, allowing for reassortment to generate new strains. Togaviridae (A) is a non-segmented virus, not capable of reassortment. Picornaviridae (C) and Paramyxoviruses (D) are also non-segmented viruses, limiting their ability for reassortment. Therefore, the correct choice is B due to the segmented nature of Reoviruses allowing for genetic reassortment.

Question 4 of 9

The bacterial cell has:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 chromosome. Bacterial cells typically have a singular circular chromosome that contains their genetic material. This chromosome is essential for the cell's survival and contains all the necessary genetic information for its functions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they refer to the chromosome numbers found in human cells (23 pairs or 46 individual chromosomes). Bacteria, being prokaryotic organisms, have a simpler genetic makeup compared to eukaryotic organisms like humans, hence they possess only one chromosome.

Question 5 of 9

Examination of a child revealed some whitish spots looking like coagulated milk on the mucous membrane of his cheeks and tongue. Analysis of smears revealed gram-positive oval yeast-like cells. What causative agents are they?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida. The whitish spots resembling coagulated milk on the mucous membranes are characteristic of oral thrush, a condition caused by Candida species. Candida is a gram-positive oval yeast-like fungus commonly found in the oral cavity. Staphylococci (B) are gram-positive cocci, not yeast-like cells. Diphtheria bacillus (C) causes diphtheria, not oral thrush. Actinomycetes (D) are filamentous bacteria, not yeast-like cells typically seen in oral thrush. Therefore, A is the correct answer based on the clinical presentation and microscopic findings.

Question 6 of 9

Which one is correct?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Gram staining after culture on Loeffler's medium or tellurite-containing medium will show the characteristic Chinese letter arrangement of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This arrangement consists of metachromatic granules that stain more deeply than the rest of the cell. This specific staining pattern is a key diagnostic feature of C. diphtheriae in microbiological diagnosis of diphtheria. Choice A is incorrect because simply identifying the isolate as C. diphtheriae is not sufficient for diagnosis. Choice B is incorrect as C. diphtheriae can be stained via Gram staining despite its small cell size. Choice D is incorrect as option C is indeed correct for microbiological diagnosis of diphtheria.

Question 7 of 9

Tuberculine was injected intracutaneously to the child for tuberculin test. Marked hyperemia, tissue infiltration developed on the place of injection in 24 hours. What mechanism caused these modifications?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Granuloma formation. In response to tuberculosis antigen (tuberculin), the immune system forms a granuloma at the injection site as a defense mechanism. Granulomas are organized collections of immune cells that wall off the antigen and prevent its spread. This process involves macrophages, T cells, and fibroblasts. Choice A (Cells cytotoxity) is incorrect because tuberculin test does not involve direct cell cytotoxicity. Choice B (Reagin type cytotoxity) is incorrect as reagin type hypersensitivity is associated with allergic reactions, not granuloma formation. Choice D (Immunocomplex cytotoxity) is also incorrect as immunocomplex cytotoxicity refers to tissue damage caused by immune complexes, not granuloma formation.

Question 8 of 9

A 30 y.o. patient is diagnosed with amebic dysentery. This diagnosis was bacteriologically confirmed. Name the preparation for its treatment:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Amebic dysentery is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, not bacteria. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating this parasitic infection. It works by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite, leading to its death. Mebendazole (B) is used to treat certain worm infections, not amebic dysentery. Itrakonazole (C) is an antifungal medication and not effective against parasites. Furacillin (D) is an antibacterial agent and not suitable for treating parasitic infections like amebic dysentery.

Question 9 of 9

Best drug to treat candida infections:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystatin. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically used to treat candida infections. It works by disrupting the cell membrane of the fungus, leading to its death. Penicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not fungal. Streptomycin (C) is also an antibiotic used for bacterial infections. Isoniazid (D) is used to treat tuberculosis, not candida infections. Therefore, Nystatin is the best choice for treating candida infections due to its antifungal properties.

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