ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered an abortion if it occurs before 20 weeks gestation. This is based on the medical definition of abortion as the termination of a pregnancy before the fetus is able to survive outside the womb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the criteria for defining abortion. B and D are specific conditions related to the fetus and the presence of infection, while C refers to passing products of conception intact, which can happen in both spontaneous and induced abortions.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the patients hormone imbalance and infertility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight loss. In PCOS, weight loss can help improve hormone balance and fertility by reducing insulin resistance and regulating hormone levels. Excess weight can exacerbate symptoms of PCOS. Kegel exercises (A) are beneficial for pelvic floor strength but do not directly address hormone imbalance. Increased fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not specifically target hormone imbalance. Topical antibiotics (D) are unrelated to PCOS treatment.
Question 3 of 9
Which form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral valve prolapse. This condition is usually benign during pregnancy because the heart's workload increases, and the mitral valve is a one-way valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium. Mitral valve prolapse typically does not significantly affect the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently during pregnancy. Rationale: 1. Cardiomyopathy (A) can worsen during pregnancy, leading to complications for both the mother and the fetus. 2. Rheumatic heart disease (C) can cause valve damage, increasing the risk of complications during pregnancy. 3. Congenital heart disease (D) varies in severity and can pose risks during pregnancy, depending on the specific condition. Summary: Mitral valve prolapse is the correct answer as it is less likely to cause significant issues during pregnancy compared to the other options provided.
Question 4 of 9
A smiling patient angrily states, “I will notcough and deep breathe.” How will the nurse interpret this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient's affect, which refers to their emotional expression, is inappropriate. The patient is smiling while expressing anger, which is a contradiction. This inconsistency indicates a possible underlying issue such as emotional distress or confusion. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not about the patient's understanding of the term "cough and deep breathe." Choice B is incorrect as there is no mention of personal space violation. Choice D is incorrect as the issue is not related to the patient's vocabulary but rather their emotional expression.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is taking a history on a patient whocannot speak English. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain an interpreter. This is the best action as it ensures effective communication and accurate understanding of the patient's history and needs. Using a professional interpreter maintains confidentiality, avoids misinterpretation, and promotes cultural sensitivity. Referring to a speech therapist (B) is not appropriate for language barriers. Letting a family member talk (C) may compromise privacy and accuracy. Finding a mental health nurse specialist (D) is not needed for language translation.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is performing the admission assessment of a patient who has AIDS. What components should the nurse include in this comprehensive assessment? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Current medication regimen. In the admission assessment of a patient with AIDS, it is crucial to assess the patient's current medication regimen to ensure proper management of the condition. This includes antiretroviral therapy, prophylactic medications, and any other medications the patient may be taking to manage comorbidities. Understanding the medications the patient is currently taking allows the nurse to assess for potential drug interactions, side effects, and adherence to the treatment plan. This information is essential for providing safe and effective care for the patient. Choice B: Identification of patients support system is important but not a specific component of the comprehensive assessment for a patient with AIDS. Choice C: Immune system function is a relevant aspect in a patient with AIDS, but it is not typically assessed in the admission assessment as it requires specialized testing. Choice D: Genetic risk factors for HIV are not typically assessed in the admission assessment of a patient with AIDS as the focus is on the current condition and management
Question 7 of 9
A nurse exchanges information with the oncomingnurse about a patient’s care. Which action did the nurse complete?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A verbal report. This is because exchanging information verbally between nurses allows for real-time communication, ensuring important details are accurately conveyed. Electronic record entry (B) involves documenting information in the patient's record but does not involve direct communication. Referral (C) refers to transferring the patient's care to another healthcare provider. Acuity rating (D) is a tool used to determine the severity of a patient's condition and does not involve exchanging information between nurses.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with multiple sclerosis who is demonstrating involuntary, rhythmic eye movements. What term will the nurse use when documenting these eye movements?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct term for the involuntary, rhythmic eye movements seen in the patient with multiple sclerosis is nystagmus. Nystagmus is a condition characterized by repetitive, uncontrolled eye movements that can be horizontal, vertical, or rotary. In multiple sclerosis, nystagmus can occur due to damage to the nerves that control eye movement. Vertigo (choice A) is a sensation of spinning or dizziness, not related to eye movements. Tinnitus (choice B) is a perception of noise or ringing in the ears. Astigmatism (choice D) is a refractive error of the eye, not related to involuntary eye movements.
Question 9 of 9
A child is undergoing testing for food allergies after experiencing unexplained signs and symptoms of hypersensitivity. What food items would the nurse inform the parents are common allergens?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eggs and wheat. This is because eggs and wheat are common food allergens in children. Eggs contain proteins that can trigger allergic reactions, while wheat contains gluten, a common allergen. Citrus fruits and rice (choice A) are not common allergens. Root vegetables and tomatoes (choice B) are also less likely to cause allergies. Hard cheeses and vegetable oils (choice D) are not commonly associated with food allergies in children. Therefore, informing the parents about eggs and wheat as common allergens is crucial for the child's testing and management of food allergies.