ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered an abortion if it occurs before 20 weeks gestation. This is based on the medical definition of abortion as the termination of a pregnancy before the fetus is able to survive outside the womb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the criteria for defining abortion. B and D are specific conditions related to the fetus and the presence of infection, while C refers to passing products of conception intact, which can happen in both spontaneous and induced abortions.
Question 2 of 9
Which assessment in a patient diagnosed with preeclampsia who is taking magnesium sulfate would indicate a therapeutic level of medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal deep tendon reflexes. This indicates a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate as it shows that the medication is effectively preventing hyperreflexia, a common sign of magnesium toxicity. Drowsiness (choice A) can indicate toxicity. Urinary output of 20 mL/hour (choice B) is not specific to magnesium sulfate levels. Respiratory rate of 10 to 12 breaths per minute (choice D) is indicative of respiratory depression, a sign of magnesium toxicity. Thus, choice C is the best assessment to indicate a therapeutic level of medication in a patient with preeclampsia taking magnesium sulfate.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to tolerate oral food and fluid intake and her tumor location precludes the use of enteral feeding. What intervention should the nurse identify as best meeting this patients nutritional needs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter. TPN provides comprehensive nutrition intravenously, bypassing the GI tract, which is important for patients unable to tolerate oral intake. A peripherally inserted central catheter allows for long-term TPN administration. A: Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV is not ideal for long-term nutrition as it may not provide complete nutrition. C: Insertion of an NG tube may not be feasible due to the tumor location and the patient's inability to tolerate oral intake. D: Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration alone may lead to malnutrition over time as it does not provide adequate nutrition.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.
Question 5 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with a cervical disk herniation is receiving health education from the clinic nurse. What conservative management measures should the nurse teach the patient to implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sleep on a firm mattress. A firm mattress helps maintain proper spinal alignment, reducing pressure on the cervical spine. This promotes healing and prevents worsening of symptoms. A: Performing active ROM exercises may exacerbate symptoms and worsen the condition. C: Applying cool compresses may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of spinal alignment. D: Wearing a cervical collar for extended periods can weaken neck muscles and hinder natural healing processes. In summary, sleeping on a firm mattress is the most appropriate conservative measure as it supports proper spinal alignment.
Question 6 of 9
A patients ocular tumor has necessitated enucleation and the patient will be fitted with a prosthesis. The nurse should address what nursing diagnosis when planning the patients discharge education?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disturbed body image. Enucleation can have a significant impact on a patient's self-image and self-esteem. By addressing this nursing diagnosis, the nurse can help the patient cope with the changes in their physical appearance and support them in adjusting to wearing a prosthesis. Summary: - Choice B (Chronic pain) is incorrect because enucleation may cause acute pain initially, but chronic pain is not a common concern post-enucleation. - Choice C (Ineffective protection) is incorrect because enucleation does not necessarily affect the eye's protection mechanism. - Choice D (Unilateral neglect) is incorrect as it refers to a neurological condition unrelated to the patient's situation post-enucleation.
Question 7 of 9
As the triage nurse in the emergency room, you are reviewing results for the high-risk obstetric patient who is in labor because of traumatic injury experienced as a result of a motor vehicle accident (MVA). You note that the Kleihauer–Betke test is positive. Based on this information, you anticipate that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: immediate birth is required. The Kleihauer–Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage in situations where there is a risk of fetal blood entering the maternal circulation, such as trauma during pregnancy. A positive result indicates a significant fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which can lead to Rh incompatibility and severe fetal anemia. Immediate birth is required to prevent complications and ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choice B is incorrect as transferring the patient to the critical care unit does not address the underlying issue of fetal-maternal hemorrhage. Choice C is incorrect as RhoGAM is typically administered to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers carrying Rh-positive babies, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as a tetanus shot is not directly related to the positive Kleihauer–Betke test result indicating fetal-maternal hemorrhage.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching a patient to care for her new ocular prosthesis. What should the nurse emphasize during the patients health education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The need to perform thorough hand hygiene before handling the prosthesis. This is crucial to prevent infection. By washing hands thoroughly, the patient reduces the risk of introducing harmful bacteria or pathogens to the prosthesis, which could lead to infections or other complications. Incorrect Choices: A: The need to limit exposure to bright light - This is not directly related to caring for an ocular prosthesis. B: The need to maintain a low Fowlers position when removing the prosthesis - Positioning is not typically a concern when caring for an ocular prosthesis. D: The need to apply antiviral ointment to the prosthesis daily - Antiviral ointment is not a standard part of ocular prosthesis care unless specifically prescribed by a healthcare provider for a particular reason.
Question 9 of 9
Initiate feeding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (2, 4, 1, 3, 5) because it follows the correct sequential order for initiating feeding. First, you need to prepare the food (2), then set up the feeding area (4), followed by inviting the person to eat (1), serving the food (3), and finally allowing them to eat (5). The other choices do not adhere to the logical sequence required for initiating feeding. Choice A and D have incorrect sequences of steps, while Choice C has steps 1 and 4 switched, which disrupts the proper order of initiating feeding.