ATI RN
Disorders of the Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: *
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so combining it with another potassium-sparing diuretic like amiloride can lead to hyperkalemia. Chlorthalidone, a thiazide-like diuretic, can be synergistic with spironolactone. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can counteract the potassium-sparing effects of spironolactone. Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can also lead to hypokalemia when combined with spironolactone. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as combining spironolactone with hydrochlorothiazide may increase the risk of potassium imbalance.
Question 2 of 5
Which antibiotic course is inappropriate for clinical scenario?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the antibiotic regimen for acute uncomplicated pyelonephritis should not include gentamycin due to its potential toxicity and nephrotoxicity. The initial use of IV gentamycin is not recommended for uncomplicated pyelonephritis. The combination of gentamycin and amoxicillin is not the standard treatment for this condition. Gentamycin should be reserved for more serious infections. The choice of Augmentin for 7 days orally is also not the standard of care for pyelonephritis. The other choices (A, C, D) are appropriate antibiotic regimens for the corresponding clinical scenarios.
Question 3 of 5
The commonest type of ureteric calculus is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: calcium oxalate. This is because calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of ureteric calculus, accounting for around 75% of cases. They form due to an excess of calcium and oxalate in the urine. Triple phosphate stones (choice B) are more commonly found in the bladder and are associated with urinary tract infections. Urate stones (choice C) are less common and typically seen in patients with gout or acidic urine. Cysteine stones (choice D) are rare and usually seen in patients with a genetic disorder affecting cysteine metabolism.
Question 4 of 5
The mother of a 10-year-old boy asks the nurse to discuss the recognition of puberty. The nurse should reply by saying:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the first sign of puberty in boys is typically an enlargement of the testes due to increased testosterone production. This occurs around age 10-14. Choice A is incorrect as puberty usually begins around 10-14 years of age. Choice D is incorrect as penis growth usually starts during puberty, not at 16.
Question 5 of 5
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, which action is correct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament. This is the correct action during a male genital examination as it helps assess for any abnormalities or signs of infection in the lymphatic system. Palpating the lymph nodes allows the nurse to identify any swelling, tenderness, or enlargement which could indicate underlying health issues. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Auscultating for a bruit over the scrotum is not a standard practice during a genital examination and is not relevant to assessing male genital health. C: Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present is incorrect as palpating the inguinal canal should be done regardless of the presence of a bulge to check for hernias. D: Having the patient shift his weight is not a standard procedure during a genital examination and is not relevant to assessing male genital health.