Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Specific management for incomplete uterine rupture:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because immediate cesarean is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Monitoring for signs of shock is essential to detect any deterioration in the mother's condition. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the mother's hemodynamic status. Option B is incorrect as observation alone may delay necessary interventions. Option C is partially correct as immediate cesarean is necessary but does not address monitoring for shock and fluid resuscitation. Option D is incorrect as continuous monitoring alone is insufficient to manage incomplete uterine rupture.

Question 2 of 5

The baby dies immediately after birth due to the presence of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this condition, there is a single large vessel arising from the heart that gives rise to the systemic, pulmonary, and coronary arteries. This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygenation of the body, causing immediate death after birth. A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation typically do not cause immediate death after birth. D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal structure that closes shortly after birth and its presence would not directly cause immediate death.

Question 3 of 5

Causes of polyhydramnious include:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because congenital abnormalities and chorioangioma can lead to increased amniotic fluid accumulation, causing polyhydramnios. Congenital abnormalities can affect fetal swallowing and urine production, leading to fluid buildup. Chorioangioma is a vascular tumor in the placenta that can disrupt normal fluid dynamics. Choice B is incorrect as severe fetal hypoxia and multiple pregnancy are more likely to cause oligohydramnios, not polyhydramnios. Choice C is incorrect as uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and anemia are associated with macrosomia and not polyhydramnios. Choice D is incorrect because Rhesus D isoimmunisation and postdatism are not typically linked to polyhydramnios.

Question 4 of 5

Breech presentation: a) What is meant by “breech presentation”?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Breech presentation refers to the bottom or feet-first position of the baby in the uterus. This is the correct answer (B) because it accurately defines breech presentation. Choice A (head-first presentation) is incorrect as it describes the typical vertex presentation. Choices C (oblique lie) and D (transverse lie) are also incorrect as they refer to other abnormal fetal positions that are different from breech presentation.

Question 5 of 5

Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preservation of sensorineural hearing. In cholesteatoma, surgery aims to remove the lesion and prevent further damage to the ossicles and inner ear structures. Preserving sensorineural hearing is crucial to maintain auditory function post-surgery. A: Production of a dry ear is important to prevent recurrence, but not the primary goal. C: Debridement of infection is necessary, but the main aim is to address the cholesteatoma itself. D: Restoration of the tympanic membrane may be needed but is not the primary objective in cholesteatoma surgery.

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