Some of the embryo’s intestines remain within the umbilical cord during the embryonic period because the

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Conception and Fetal Development NCLEX Questions Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Some of the embryo’s intestines remain within the umbilical cord during the embryonic period because the

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During early development of the fetus, the umbilical cord is relatively larger compared to later stages of pregnancy. This is because the umbilical cord plays a crucial role in providing necessary nutrients, oxygen, and removing waste products from the developing baby. As the pregnancy progresses, the blood vessels in the umbilical cord mature and shrink in diameter, leading to a decrease in its overall size compared to the early stages. The larger size of the umbilical cord in early pregnancy facilitates efficient nutrient exchange between the mother and the developing fetus, supporting the baby's growth and development.

Question 2 of 5

Along with gas exchange and nutrient transfer, the placenta produces many hormones necessary for normal pregnancy, including which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and understanding the role of hormones in pregnancy, it is crucial to delve into the functions of various hormones produced by the placenta. Estrogen, which is the correct answer in this case, plays a pivotal role in maintaining the pregnancy by promoting growth of the uterus and increasing blood flow to the placenta. It also helps regulate other hormones essential for pregnancy. Progesterone, another hormone produced by the placenta, helps maintain the uterine lining for implantation and supports early pregnancy. Insulin, on the other hand, is produced by the pancreas and is not directly related to placental hormone production. Testosterone is primarily a male sex hormone and is not a hormone produced by the placenta during pregnancy. Educationally, understanding the functions of these hormones in pregnancy is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially pharmacologists, as it can impact drug interactions and treatment approaches for pregnant individuals. By grasping the roles of these hormones, healthcare providers can make informed decisions to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is counseling a patient regarding pregnancy. The patient lost her first two pregnancies in the second trimester of gestation for undetermined reasons. Which initial advice does the nurse provide for this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct initial advice for the patient who has experienced two previous losses in the second trimester of gestation is to seek genetic studies (option B). This recommendation is based on the need to investigate potential underlying genetic factors that could be contributing to the recurrent pregnancy losses. Genetic studies can help identify any chromosomal abnormalities or genetic mutations that may be impacting the patient's ability to carry a pregnancy to term. Option A, considering adoption, is not the most appropriate initial advice as the patient may still desire to pursue biological pregnancy and addressing potential genetic issues is crucial before exploring other options. Option C, planning for fertility tests, is not the most relevant advice in this situation as the patient has been able to conceive but has faced losses in the second trimester, indicating a different issue than primary infertility. Option D, attending grief counseling, is important for emotional support but addressing the potential genetic causes of the losses should take precedence to provide the patient with a clearer understanding of her situation and potential future pregnancy outcomes. In an educational context, understanding the underlying causes of recurrent pregnancy loss is essential in the field of pharmacology as it can impact the management and treatment options available to patients. Genetic studies play a significant role in identifying potential genetic factors that can influence reproductive outcomes, guiding healthcare providers in developing personalized care plans for patients experiencing similar challenges.

Question 4 of 5

A patient who has just received confirmation that she is pregnant is distressed because she has a seizure disorder that she manages with carbamazepine. Which is the nurse’s greatest concern?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Carbamazepine is teratogenic and causes neural and facial defects. The greatest concern for the nurse is the teratogenic effects of carbamazepine on the developing fetus. Carbamazepine is known to increase the risk of neural tube defects, craniofacial abnormalities, and developmental delays when taken during pregnancy. Therefore, it is crucial to educate the patient about the potential harm to the fetus and work with the healthcare provider to find a safer alternative to manage her seizure disorder during pregnancy. Option A) The carbamazepine may be discontinued is incorrect because abruptly stopping anti-seizure medication can pose risks to both the mother and the fetus due to uncontrolled seizures. Option B) The pregnancy is likely to end with fetal demise is incorrect as it is an extreme and unfounded statement. Proper management of the medication and close monitoring can help ensure a healthy pregnancy outcome. Option C) The fetus will experience loss of vision and hearing is incorrect as there is no direct evidence linking carbamazepine to these specific fetal abnormalities. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding teratogenic effects of medications during pregnancy and the need for healthcare providers to carefully weigh the risks and benefits of medication use in pregnant patients with pre-existing medical conditions. It also emphasizes the role of nurses in patient education and advocating for the best interests of both the mother and the unborn child.

Question 5 of 5

A patient at 34 weeks gestation is undergoing an ultrasound. The nurse notes that the amniotic fluid is estimated at between 500 and 600 mL. Which deduction does the nurse make from this finding?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Oligohydramnios is present. Oligohydramnios refers to a condition where there is a decreased volume of amniotic fluid. At 34 weeks gestation, the normal amniotic fluid volume should be around 800-1000 mL. A volume of 500-600 mL indicates a lower than normal amount of fluid, which can lead to complications such as poor fetal lung development, compression of the umbilical cord, and fetal growth restriction. Option B) Fluid is normal for gestational age is incorrect because, as mentioned earlier, the normal volume of amniotic fluid at 34 weeks gestation should be higher. Option C) Polyhydramnios has formed is incorrect because polyhydramnios is the opposite condition where there is an excessive amount of amniotic fluid present. Option D) Follow-up ultrasound is warranted may be true in some cases to monitor the situation closely, but the immediate concern in this scenario is the presence of oligohydramnios, which requires prompt evaluation and management to prevent potential complications for the fetus. Understanding the normal range of amniotic fluid volume at different gestational ages is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers caring for pregnant patients. Monitoring and recognizing deviations from the normal range are essential for timely interventions to ensure optimal maternal and fetal outcomes.

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