Simple hysterectomy involves the removal of which structure(s)?

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Simple hysterectomy involves the removal of which structure(s)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A simple hysterectomy involves the removal of the uterus and cervix. It does not involve the removal of the fallopian tubes or ovaries. In some cases, the fallopian tubes may be removed along with the uterus, but this would be specified as a different type of hysterectomy (such as a total hysterectomy or a radical hysterectomy). The removal of the ovaries, if necessary, would be indicated as an oophorectomy.

Question 2 of 9

A patient is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial injury?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Troponin is the most specific cardiac biomarker for myocardial injury. Troponin I and Troponin T are proteins released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle, making them highly indicative of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within a few hours of cardiac injury, peak within 24-48 hours, and can remain elevated for up to 2 weeks. Troponin is considered the gold standard biomarker for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction due to its high specificity and sensitivity for cardiac injury. In contrast, Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) and myoglobin are also used in diagnosing myocardial infarction but are less specific than troponin. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is primarily used in heart failure diagnosis and management, and its levels are not specific to myocardial injury.

Question 3 of 9

Ella's states'I wish I were dead . I cannot stand anymore not having lory around." ; your most appropriate Nursing action would be:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: It is important for the nurse to explore Ella's feelings further when she expresses thoughts of wishing to be dead and struggling with not having someone around. These statements indicate that Ella may be experiencing emotional distress or depression, which require immediate attention. By exploring Ella's feelings, the nurse can assess the severity of her emotional state, provide appropriate support, and potentially prevent any harm or self-harm. It is crucial to address and validate her emotions, as well as to initiate necessary interventions to ensure her safety and well-being.

Question 4 of 9

To ensure quality nursing care to a patient in skin traction, what is the PRIORTTY intervention that a nurse has to assess frequently?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is in skin traction, the constant pressure and rubbing against the skin from the traction device can lead to skin breakdown. Therefore, assessing for signs of skin breakdown, such as redness, irritation, or pressure injuries, is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the patient's comfort and safety. Prompt identification and intervention for any skin issues can prevent further damage and promote healing, making this the priority intervention for quality nursing care in skin traction. While monitoring for signs of infection, urinary incontinence, and bowel sounds are important, skin breakdown poses a more immediate threat to the patient's well-being in this scenario.

Question 5 of 9

During the immediate post-operative phase , the PRIMARY goal of the health care team is to maintain ventilation. Which of the following situations should be observed as a result of hypoxemia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: One of the main consequences of hypoxemia, which is low oxygen levels in the blood, is decreased oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation refers to the percentage of hemoglobin molecules in the blood that are bound to oxygen. When there is insufficient oxygen in the blood due to hypoxemia, the oxygen saturation levels will drop. This can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, confusion, rapid heart rate, and ultimately can result in tissue damage if not corrected promptly. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is crucial in the immediate post-operative phase to ensure adequate ventilation and oxygenation for the patient's recovery.

Question 6 of 9

Charting are important documents that are used in court proceedings a Nurse Chona should take note that the following entry recorded would be MOST defensible in court?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Of the options provided, documenting objective, observable findings such as large bruises on the thigh upon assessment is the most defensible entry in court. This type of entry is based on the nurse's direct observation and assessment of the patient's physical condition, which can be corroborated by other healthcare providers or evidence. It provides clear, factual information without making assumptions or subjective judgments. In court, this type of documentation can help support the nurse's credibility and reliability as a witness.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision, which is characteristic of glaucoma. The elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) on tonometry further supports a diagnosis of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type of glaucoma and typically presents insidiously with a slow progression of vision loss. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open but becomes less efficient over time, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage. This results in peripheral visual field loss. Closed-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, presents more acutely with sudden eye pain, redness, and blurred vision due to a sudden increase in intraocular pressure from a blocked drainage angle. Age-related macular degeneration and diabetic retinopathy typically do not present with elevated IOP or peripheral visual field loss.

Question 8 of 9

A patient is non-compliant with prescribed medications and treatment plans. What is the nurse's best approach to address non-compliance?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best approach to address non-compliance with prescribed medications and treatment plans is to actively listen to the patient's reasons for non-compliance. By acknowledging and addressing any barriers or concerns the patient may have, the nurse can work collaboratively with the patient to find effective solutions. This approach promotes open communication, trust, and a patient-centered care plan that takes into consideration the patient's individual needs and circumstances. Dismissing the patient's reasons (choice A), ignoring the non-compliance (choice C), or resorting to a confrontational approach (choice D) are less effective strategies that may lead to further resistance and hinder the patient's willingness to engage in their treatment.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with a severe bacterial infection has elevated levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) in their blood. Which of the following functions does CRP primarily serve during the acute phase response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During the acute phase response, C-reactive protein (CRP) primarily serves to activate the complement system. CRP binds to phosphocholine on the surface of pathogens, allowing for the activation of the classical pathway of the complement system. This leads to the recruitment of immune cells, opsonization of pathogens, and enhancement of phagocytosis. The activation of the complement system by CRP plays a crucial role in the host defense against infections, aiding in the elimination of pathogens and the resolution of inflammation.

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