Side effects of sulphonylureas are less than those of biguanides. This considerations is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Sulphonylureas can cause hypoglycemia, weight gain, and gastrointestinal issues. Step 2: Biguanides can cause gastrointestinal issues and lactic acidosis. Step 3: Biguanides have fewer side effects compared to sulphonylureas. Step 4: Therefore, the statement that side effects of sulphonylureas are less than biguanides is FALSE. Summary: Choice B is correct because biguanides have fewer side effects than sulphonylureas, making the statement false. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the statement is not true for all options.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunoglobulins. Intravenous Immunoglobulin (IV IgG) preparations are derived from pooled human plasma containing a broad spectrum of antibodies. IV IgG is used for replacement therapy in immunodeficiency disorders and autoimmune diseases. Monoclonal antibodies (A) are specific antibodies produced by identical immune cells, not a class of IV IgG. Immunosuppressive agents (B) are drugs that suppress the immune system to prevent rejection in organ transplant patients. Interferons (C) are signaling proteins released by cells in response to pathogens, not a class of IV IgG. In summary, IV IgG preparations belong to the class of immunoglobulins, not monoclonal antibodies, immunosuppressive agents, or interferons.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because rickets is indeed a deficiency disease primarily affecting children due to lack of vitamin D, calcium, and sunlight exposure. Here's the rationale: 1. Rickets is characterized by defective bone growth, which aligns with the growth stage of children. 2. Rickets is caused by a lack of vitamin D or calcium, crucial for bone health. 3. Insufficient exposure to sunlight leads to decreased vitamin D synthesis. 4. Other choices are incorrect: - Choice B describes osteomalacia, a disease in adults, not rickets. - Choice C describes osteoporosis, a different condition in postmenopausal women. - Choice D is incorrect since rickets does not encompass all the conditions mentioned.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Answer B is correct because discontinuing a lipid-lowering diet solely based on the immediate reduction in plasma LDL cholesterol levels by 10% is not appropriate. The efficacy of a diet in managing lipid levels should be evaluated over a longer period, considering other factors like overall cardiovascular health and risk factors. Choosing to discontinue the diet based solely on the short-term reduction in LDL cholesterol levels can lead to overlooking other important aspects of cardiovascular health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: This statement is true because combining lipid-lowering drugs with an appropriate diet can enhance the overall effectiveness of therapy in managing lipid levels. C: This statement is also true as dietary interventions are usually recommended as the first-line approach before resorting to pharmacological therapy. D: This statement is true as certain combinations of lipid-lowering drugs can indeed work synergistically to achieve better outcomes in managing lipid levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral. Calcifediol is typically administered orally because it undergoes hepatic hydroxylation to form the active form of vitamin D, calcitriol. Subcutaneous (B) and intravenous (C) routes would bypass this necessary metabolic step. Intranasal (D) administration is not a common route for vitamin D supplementation. Therefore, oral administration ensures proper metabolism and bioavailability of calcifediol.