Short-bowel syndrome usually occurs when:

Questions 78

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ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4 Questions

Question 1 of 9

Short-bowel syndrome usually occurs when:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Short-bowel syndrome usually occurs when more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. This condition results in malabsorption of nutrients and fluids due to the reduced length of the small intestine. Choice A is incorrect because the contraction of longitudinal muscles does not lead to short-bowel syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as short-bowel syndrome is primarily related to the small intestine, not the large intestine. Choice D is incorrect since decreased transit time due to infection or drugs is not a direct cause of short-bowel syndrome.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention when a client goes into ventricular tachycardia is to assess for a pulse. This is crucial as the presence or absence of a pulse guides subsequent actions. Initiating chest compressions or calling a code should only be done after confirming the absence of a pulse. Continuing to monitor the client without checking for a pulse delays potentially life-saving interventions.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 68WM6. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties. Choice A (68A30) does not correspond to a primary enlisted personnel role in nursing. Choice C (Physician assistant) is not an enlisted personnel role but rather a separate healthcare profession. Choice D (6.80E+21) is a numerical value and does not relate to enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties.

Question 4 of 9

Who is at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Older men and women are at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions due to factors such as polypharmacy and physiological changes. Polypharmacy, common in older adults, increases the likelihood of interactions between drugs and nutrients. Physiological changes that occur with aging can affect how drugs and nutrients are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the body. Infants, people with diabetes, and women of childbearing age are not typically considered high-risk groups for drug-nutrient interactions compared to older adults.

Question 5 of 9

Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of training soldiers for survival on the battlefield?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Individual training. This category involves the specific task of preparing soldiers for battlefield survival, making it the most appropriate choice for the given scenario. Choice A, Accountability, focuses on being answerable for one's actions and decisions, which is not directly related to training soldiers. Choice B, Personal/professional development, pertains to personal growth and career advancement, not specific training for battlefield survival. Choice D, Military appearance/physical condition, deals with the physical aspects and presentation of soldiers, not the training required for battlefield survival.

Question 6 of 9

Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer due to its impact on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is more associated with oral and throat cancers, not pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is actually considered a protective factor against pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be a risk factor for other types of cancer but is not strongly linked to pancreatic cancer.

Question 7 of 9

Where do most peptic ulcers occur?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. Peptic ulcers are most commonly found in the duodenum or the first part of the small intestine. While ulcers can also occur in the esophagus and stomach, they are predominantly located in the duodenum. Therefore, options A, B, and D are incorrect.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client recovering from intestinal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Complaints of chills and feeling feverish may indicate infection, which requires immediate intervention. In this postoperative setting, the presence of thin pink drainage in the Jackson Pratt drain is expected as part of the normal healing process. Guarding when the nurse touches the abdomen and tenderness around the surgical site are common after surgery and may not require immediate intervention unless they are severe or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

Question 9 of 9

The client with peripheral vascular disease is being taught by the nurse. Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with peripheral vascular disease include keeping the area between the toes dry and wearing comfortable, well-fitting shoes. Choice A is correct as moisture between the toes can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice B is also correct as proper footwear helps prevent injury and promotes circulation. Choice C, cutting toenails straight across, is incorrect for peripheral vascular disease clients as cutting them in an arch can reduce the risk of ingrown toenails, which is important for clients with diabetes to prevent complications. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate interventions for the client with peripheral vascular disease.

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