Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Short-bowel syndrome usually occurs when more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. This condition results in malabsorption of nutrients and fluids due to the reduced length of the small intestine. Choice A is incorrect because the contraction of longitudinal muscles does not lead to short-bowel syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as short-bowel syndrome is primarily related to the small intestine, not the large intestine. Choice D is incorrect since decreased transit time due to infection or drugs is not a direct cause of short-bowel syndrome.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's bilateral pedal pulses is essential in this situation as it helps in evaluating the peripheral perfusion and circulation in the lower extremities. This assessment is crucial to detect any signs of decreased blood flow or complications, such as arterial occlusion or thrombosis. Ambulating the client may be important in the postoperative period, but assessing pedal pulses takes priority to ensure adequate perfusion. Maintaining continuous IV heparin drip is not typically indicated immediately post-operatively for an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, as the risk of bleeding complications may outweigh the benefits. Providing a clear liquid diet is not a priority nursing intervention at this stage, as the focus should be on vascular assessment and postoperative monitoring.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis, requiring immediate intervention. Option A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, though important, does not indicate an immediate need for assessment. Option B, a client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom, does not present with urgent signs or symptoms requiring immediate assessment. Option D, a client with arterial occlusive disease and a decreased pedal pulse, needs attention but is not the priority compared to a hypertensive crisis with epistaxis and headache.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Accountability. Accountability involves knowing what individuals are doing during duty hours, ensuring they are responsible and answerable for their actions. Personal/professional development (choice B) refers to enhancing one's skills and knowledge, individual training (choice C) focuses on specific training needs, and military appearance/physical condition (choice D) pertains to the physical presentation and fitness of individuals, not directly related to knowing what they are doing during duty hours.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Starting the transfusion slowly at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes is the correct precaution to implement when the cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. This allows the nurse to monitor for any adverse reactions due to the presence of antibodies. Re-crossmatching the blood until the antibodies are identified is not practical and may delay the transfusion, potentially compromising the patient's condition. Having the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood is not the best course of action as the focus should be on ensuring a safe transfusion. Having an unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client does not address the specific precaution needed to manage a transfusion in the presence of antibodies.