Shock associated with decreased central venous pressure includes the following Except:

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Question 1 of 5

Shock associated with decreased central venous pressure includes the following Except:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the different types of shock is crucial for providing effective care to critically ill children. In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Cardiogenic. The rationale for A) Cardiogenic being the correct answer lies in the fact that shock associated with decreased central venous pressure is not typically associated with cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is usually due to heart failure or myocardial dysfunction, leading to inadequate cardiac output. Option B) Hypovolemic, C) Septic, and D) Distributive are types of shock that can be associated with decreased central venous pressure. Hypovolemic shock is due to a decrease in blood volume, septic shock is caused by a systemic response to infection, and distributive shock involves abnormal distribution of blood flow. Educationally, this question helps learners differentiate between the various types of shock and understand the unique characteristics of each. It reinforces the importance of recognizing the underlying causes of shock in pediatric patients, which is essential for prompt and effective treatment in a clinical setting. By grasping these concepts, nurses can provide optimal care and improve outcomes for children experiencing shock.

Question 2 of 5

Advanced life support includes the following Except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, advanced life support is a critical aspect of providing emergency care to children. The correct answer, D) Treatment of life-threatening arrhythmias, is not typically a component of basic pediatric advanced life support protocols. Basic life support focuses on the immediate interventions like chest compressions, airway management, and breathing support. Treatment of life-threatening arrhythmias requires a higher level of training and expertise, usually beyond the scope of basic pediatric life support. Option A) Vascular access is essential in advanced life support to administer medications and fluids rapidly. Option B) Fluid administration is crucial in managing shock and maintaining perfusion. Option C) Breathing support involves interventions like bag-mask ventilation and advanced airway management, which are fundamental in resuscitating a child in distress. Understanding the components of advanced life support is vital for pediatric nurses to effectively respond to emergencies and improve patient outcomes. It is important to prioritize interventions based on the situation and level of training to provide the best possible care for pediatric patients in critical situations.

Question 3 of 5

A 6-year-old male patient presented with microcephaly, microphthalmia, absent thumb, ectopic kidney & recurrent epistaxis. The most informative diagnostic test explaining the underlying etiology is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Chromosomal breakage test. In this case, the patient's presentation of multiple congenital anomalies suggests a chromosomal abnormality, possibly a genetic disorder like Fanconi Anemia. The Chromosomal breakage test is used to diagnose conditions like Fanconi Anemia, which is characterized by sensitivity to DNA damage and chromosomal breakage. This test can identify the specific genetic mutation responsible for the patient's symptoms. Option B) Hemoglobin electrophoresis is used to diagnose hemoglobinopathies like sickle cell disease or thalassemia, not genetic syndromes presenting with multiple congenital anomalies as in this case. Option C) The Schilling test is used to diagnose pernicious anemia or vitamin B12 deficiency, not genetic disorders presenting with congenital anomalies. Option D) Osmotic fragility test is used to diagnose conditions like hereditary spherocytosis, a hemolytic anemia, which does not explain the patient's constellation of symptoms. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind selecting the appropriate diagnostic test based on the patient's presentation is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients. This question reinforces the importance of considering a patient's complete clinical picture and choosing diagnostic tests that align with the suspected underlying etiology to provide accurate and timely care.

Question 4 of 5

One of the following is not among causes of normocytic normochromic anemia:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the different types of anemia is crucial for providing quality care to children. In this question, the correct answer is C) Iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by decreased levels of iron in the body, leading to impaired production of red blood cells with a normocytic normochromic appearance. This type of anemia is common in children due to inadequate dietary intake of iron or malabsorption. A) Anemia of the newborn is a transient condition caused by the switch from fetal to adult hemoglobin production and does not involve iron deficiency. B) Aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce an adequate number of blood cells, leading to pancytopenia, not specifically normocytic normochromic anemia. D) Hemorrhagic anemia results from acute or chronic blood loss and can present with normocytic normochromic features. Understanding the etiology and characteristics of different types of anemia is essential for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Nurses need to be able to recognize the specific features of each type to provide effective care and education to patients and their families.

Question 5 of 5

In hyperkalemia, which of the following treatments antagonizes the direct effect of potassium on the heart?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the management of hyperkalemia is crucial for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients. In hyperkalemia, the elevated levels of potassium can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, including arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. The correct answer, IV calcium gluconate (Option C), antagonizes the direct effect of potassium on the heart by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane potential. Calcium helps counteract the depolarizing effect of potassium, thereby reducing the risk of life-threatening cardiac complications. Option A, cation exchange resin, is used to remove potassium from the body by exchanging it with other cations in the gastrointestinal tract. While this treatment can lower potassium levels, it does not directly counteract the effects of hyperkalemia on the heart like calcium gluconate does. Option B, inhaled Beta 2 agonist, is more commonly used in conditions like asthma to cause bronchodilation. It does not play a significant role in managing hyperkalemia and its cardiac effects. Option D, IV insulin/glucose mixture infusion, works by promoting the movement of potassium from the extracellular space into the cells. While this treatment can help lower potassium levels overall, it does not specifically target the direct cardiac effects of hyperkalemia like calcium gluconate does. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind choosing IV calcium gluconate in hyperkalemia is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide timely and appropriate interventions to prevent cardiac complications in pediatric patients. By grasping the pharmacological actions of different treatments, nurses can make informed clinical decisions to optimize patient outcomes and safety.

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