Shock associated with decreased central venous pressure includes the following Except:

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Pediatric Clinical Nurse Specialist Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Shock associated with decreased central venous pressure includes the following Except:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A) Cardiogenic. Shock associated with decreased central venous pressure does not include cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is typically characterized by a reduced cardiac output due to heart failure, myocardial infarction, or other cardiac issues. In cardiogenic shock, central venjsonus pressure is usually elevated rather than decreased. On the other hand, the incorrect options, B) Hypovolemic, C) Septic, and D) Distributive, are types of shock that can be associated with decreased central venous pressure. Hypovolemic shock occurs due to a significant loss of blood or fluids, leading to decreased venous pressure. Septic shock is caused by a systemic immune response to infection, resulting in vasodilation and decreased venous pressure. Distributive shock, such as in septic or anaphylactic shock, involves widespread vasodilation and pooling of blood in peripheral vessels, leading to decreased central venous pressure. Educational context: Understanding the different types of shock and their associated clinical manifestations is crucial for pediatric clinical nurse specialists. By recognizing the unique characteristics of each type of shock, nurses can provide prompt and appropriate interventions to stabilize pediatric patients in critical condition. This knowledge is essential in pediatric emergency and critical care settings to ensure timely and effective management of pediatric patients presenting with shock.

Question 2 of 5

One of the following is not a screening test for a child with bleeding tendency:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of screening for a child with a bleeding tendency, the correct answer is C) Thrombin time. Thrombin time is not typically used as a screening test for bleeding disorders in children. A) Clotting time assesses the overall clotting ability of blood, which can help identify clotting disorders. B) Bleeding time measures how long it takes for bleeding to stop after a standardized skin incision, providing information on platelet function. D) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) evaluates the intrinsic and common coagulation pathways and can detect deficiencies in factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII. Educationally, it is important to understand the rationale behind each screening test for bleeding disorders in children to make informed clinical decisions. Knowing which tests are appropriate for specific situations can help healthcare providers accurately diagnose and manage pediatric patients with bleeding tendencies.

Question 3 of 5

Regarding Non-Hodgkin lymphoma:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is a diverse group of blood cancers that originate in the lymphatic system. The correct answer is B) Abdominal mass is the most common clinical presentation. This is because Non-Hodgkin lymphoma often presents with symptoms related to enlarged lymph nodes, which can manifest as an abdominal mass due to lymph node involvement in the abdomen. Option A) Less common than Hodgkin's lymphoma is incorrect as Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is actually more common than Hodgkin's lymphoma. Option C) Systemic symptoms are common is incorrect as Non-Hodgkin lymphoma can present with localized or systemic symptoms, and systemic symptoms are not always present. Option D) Unicentric in origin is incorrect because Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is more commonly multicentric in origin. In an educational context, understanding the clinical presentation of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is crucial for healthcare providers, especially pediatric clinical nurse specialists, as they play a vital role in the assessment, diagnosis, and management of pediatric oncology patients. Recognizing common clinical presentations can lead to early detection and intervention, ultimately improving patient outcomes.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is doing a routine assessment on a 14-month-old infant and notes that the anterior fontanel is closed. This should be interpreted as which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct interpretation is option A) Normal finding. The closure of the anterior fontanel at 14 months is within the expected range of normal development in infants. The anterior fontanel typically closes between 12 to 18 months of age as the bones of the skull fuse together. This closure is a normal physiological process and indicates that the infant's cranial sutures are maturing appropriately. Option B) Questionable finding—indicates infant should be rechecked in 1 month is incorrect because the closure of the anterior fontanel at 14 months is not a cause for concern or a reason for immediate reevaluation. It falls within the normal range of development. Option C) Abnormal finding—indicates need for immediate referral to practitioner is incorrect as the closed anterior fontanel at this age is not indicative of any urgent medical condition or pathology that would require immediate referral. Option D) Abnormal finding—indicates need for developmental assessment is also incorrect as the closure of the anterior fontanel is a physical developmental milestone and does not specifically warrant a developmental assessment. In an educational context, it is crucial for pediatric clinical nurse specialists to have a comprehensive understanding of normal pediatric growth and development. Recognizing normal variations from abnormal findings is essential in providing appropriate care and guidance to infants and their families. Understanding the timing of fontanel closure is a key aspect of pediatric assessment, and interpreting this finding correctly can help prevent unnecessary parental anxiety and medical interventions.

Question 5 of 5

Sara, age 4 months, was born at 35 weeks of gestation. She seems to be developing normally, but her parents are concerned because she is a more difficult baby than their other child, who was term. The nurse should explain that:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) infants' temperaments are part of their unique characteristics. This response is correct because infants, just like adults, have individual temperaments that are innate and not necessarily influenced by external factors. It is essential for parents to understand that babies can have different temperaments, and being a more difficult baby does not necessarily indicate a problem. Option B) stating that infants become less difficult if they are not kept on scheduled feedings and structured routines is incorrect. Infants actually thrive on routine and structure, and deviating from scheduled feedings can disrupt their development and overall well-being. Option C) suggesting that Sara's behavior is suggestive of failure to bond completely with her parents is incorrect. Bonding is a complex process that is not solely determined by an infant's temperament. Sara's behavior is likely not a reflection of bonding issues. Option D) claiming that Sara's difficult temperament is the result of painful experiences in the neonatal period is also incorrect in this scenario. While past experiences can impact a child's behavior, it is unlikely that this is the cause of Sara's temperament at 4 months of age. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding infant development and temperament variability. It is crucial for healthcare providers, like pediatric clinical nurse specialists, to educate parents about normal variations in infant behavior and reassure them that differences in temperament are common and natural. This knowledge helps parents better respond to and care for their children, fostering a healthy parent-child relationship.

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