Sexually transmitted infection, Lymphogranuloma venerum, is caused by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chlamydia trachomatis. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3. These serovars infect the lymphatic system leading to swelling and inflammation. Choice A, Chlamydia pneumoniae, is associated with respiratory infections, not LGV. Choice B, Chlamydia psittaci, causes psittacosis in birds and humans. Choice C, Mycoplasma genitalium, is a separate STI but is not the causative agent for LGV. The key to the correct answer is understanding the specific pathogen responsible for LGV based on its clinical presentation and mode of transmission.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sporadic disease. When an infection occurs in several persons without any epidemiological link, it is considered sporadic. This term is used to describe isolated cases that do not form a specific pattern or cluster. It indicates random occurrences and lack of connection between the affected individuals. A: Epidemic refers to a sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease within a specific population or region, usually linked by a common source or exposure. C: Endemic signifies the constant presence of a disease within a specific population or region, with cases occurring at a relatively stable rate. D: Pandemic indicates a global outbreak of a disease affecting a large number of people across multiple countries or continents.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the AST reaction, or anti-streptolysin titer, is used in the diagnostic of post-streptococcal sequelae, such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. This test measures the level of antibodies produced by the body in response to Streptolysin O, a toxin produced by Group A Streptococcus bacteria. It helps in identifying if a patient has had a recent Streptococcus infection that could lead to these complications. A: Incorrect. The AST reaction does not require urine samples, but rather blood samples. C: Incorrect. The AST reaction specifically targets antibodies produced in response to Group A Streptococcus. D: Incorrect. The AST reaction does not directly identify isolated streptococci but rather measures the body's immune response to Streptolysin O.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxacillin. In AST for Gram-positive bacteria, the antibiotic panel typically includes oxacillin to determine if the bacterium is susceptible or resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. Oxacillin is commonly used to test for methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus. Tetracycline (B), Tobramycin (C), and Amikacin (D) are not typically included in the Gram-positive antibiotic panel. Tetracycline is more commonly used for Gram-negative bacteria, while Tobramycin and Amikacin are aminoglycosides usually tested in Gram-negative bacterial infections. Therefore, they are not appropriate choices for the Gram-positive antibiotic panel.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weakly bound to the cell wall. The glycocalyx in bacteria is a protective layer that can be loosely attached to the cell wall or membrane. This loose attachment allows for flexibility and protection against desiccation and immune responses. Choice A is incorrect because the glycocalyx is not strongly bound to the cell wall, as it needs to be able to be shed easily for bacteria to escape host immune responses. Choice B is incorrect because the glycocalyx is not directly involved in bacterial movement, but rather serves as a protective barrier. Choice D is incorrect as the glycocalyx does play a role in bacterial physiology.