Several patients with similar complaints came to the doctor. They all present with weakness, pain in the intestines, indigestion. Feces analysis revealed the need for urgent hospitalization of the patient, who had microbial cysts with four nuclei detected in his samples. Such cysts are characteristic of the following protozoon:

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Medical Microbiology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Several patients with similar complaints came to the doctor. They all present with weakness, pain in the intestines, indigestion. Feces analysis revealed the need for urgent hospitalization of the patient, who had microbial cysts with four nuclei detected in his samples. Such cysts are characteristic of the following protozoon:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoon is known to cause amoebic dysentery, presenting symptoms of weakness, intestinal pain, and indigestion. The presence of microbial cysts with four nuclei in fecal samples is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. These cysts are the infective form of the parasite and can cause severe invasive disease in the intestines. Incorrect choices: B: Entamoeba coli does not typically cause invasive disease or severe symptoms like those described in the question. C: Balantidium is a ciliated protozoan that causes balantidiasis, which presents differently from the symptoms described in the question. D: Trichomonad is a flagellated protozoan that typically infects the urogenital tract, not the intestine, and does not form cysts with four nuclei. In summary, the key clues in the question were the symptoms of weakness, intestinal pain,

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following bacteria is known to cause gonorrhea?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterium is known to cause gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection. Neisseria gonorrhoeae specifically infects the mucous membranes of the reproductive tract in both men and women. It is transmitted through sexual contact. Explanation of other choices: A: Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium that causes chlamydia, not gonorrhea. C: Mycoplasma genitalium is associated with non-gonococcal urethritis, not gonorrhea. D: Treponema pallidum is the bacterium that causes syphilis, not gonorrhea. Therefore, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the correct answer based on its direct association with causing gonorrhea.

Question 3 of 9

On examination of a 6-year-old child the doctor noticed greyish film on the child's tonsils. Microscopy of the smear stained by Neisser method detected there Corynebacterium diphtheria. What morphologic feature was the most indicative for determining the type of the agent?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Polar placement of volutin granules. This feature is indicative of Corynebacterium diphtheria. Volutin granules are metachromatic granules found in the polar region of the bacterial cell, which is characteristic of this species. This feature helps differentiate it from other bacteria. Explanation: A: Fence-like position of the agent's cells is not a specific morphologic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. B: Spores that exceed cells in diameter is not a characteristic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. D: Presence of the capsule is not a distinguishing morphologic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. In summary, the polar placement of volutin granules is the most indicative feature for determining the type of agent as Corynebacterium diphtheria, making it the correct choice.

Question 4 of 9

Which of these is an early symptom of rabies

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the symptoms mentioned (short period of depression, nausea, restlessness) can be early signs of rabies. Rabies typically presents with a variety of non-specific symptoms in the early stages, including behavioral changes such as depression and restlessness, as well as gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea. Therefore, it is important to consider the combination of these symptoms collectively rather than individually when suspecting rabies. Choices A, B, and C alone may not definitively indicate rabies, but when seen together, they should raise suspicion and prompt further evaluation and testing for rabies.

Question 5 of 9

A consumptive patient has an open pulmonary form of disease. Choose what sputum staining should be selected for finding out the tubercle (Koch's) bacillus?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Method of Ziel-Neelsen. This method uses a special stain (carbol fuchsin) to detect acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of tuberculosis. The staining procedure involves heating the slide to help penetrate the mycolic acid layer of the bacteria, making them resistant to decolorization by acid-alcohol. The red stained acid-fast bacilli stand out against the blue counterstain. This method is specific for identifying tubercle bacilli in sputum samples. Choice B: Method of Romanowsky-Giemsa is used for staining blood smears and is not suitable for detecting acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Choice C: Method of Gram is used for staining bacteria based on their cell wall composition and is not effective for identifying acid-fast bacilli like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Choice D: Method of Neisser is not a specific staining method for acid-fast bacilli and is not suitable

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following has a contact route of transmission

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: HIV. HIV is transmitted through direct contact with certain body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. This direct contact route of transmission makes it different from the other choices. Salmonellosis is typically transmitted through contaminated food or water (not direct contact). Tularemia is usually transmitted through insect bites or contact with infected animals. Rubella is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets. Therefore, HIV is the only option with a contact route of transmission.

Question 7 of 9

The total magnification of an object viewed with a compound microscope with an ocular lens of ×10 and an objective lens of ×40 is ×__________.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the total magnification, we multiply the magnification of the ocular lens by the magnification of the objective lens. In this case, 10 (ocular) x 40 (objective) = 400. This is why choice C (400) is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the correct calculation of total magnification based on the given magnification powers of the ocular and objective lenses.

Question 8 of 9

A smear stained by Burri-Gins method revealed a mucous structure tightly bound to the bacterial cell wall. What is this structure called?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capsule. The capsule is a mucous structure tightly bound to the bacterial cell wall. It helps bacteria evade the host immune system and provides protection. The other choices are incorrect because: B) Spores are resistant structures formed by some bacteria for survival, C) Flagella are long, whip-like structures for movement, and D) Filaments are long, thin structures found in some bacteria.

Question 9 of 9

CDC stands for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The CDC is a U.S. government agency responsible for protecting public health and safety. The correct answer is the only choice that accurately reflects the agency's purpose. Choice B (Children's Disease Center) is incorrect because the CDC's scope is not limited to children's health. Choice C (Central Disaster Control Center) is incorrect as the CDC primarily focuses on disease prevention. Choice D (Central Drug Evaluation and Control Center) is incorrect as the CDC's main focus is not on drug evaluation. Thus, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the CDC's mission and responsibilities.

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