ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Seven girls were victims of food poisoning after eating the sandwiches served at snack time. Which of the following statement are true regarding food poisoning?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Symptoms of food poisoning typically include salivation, cramping, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, so statement A is correct. Step 2: Food left unrefrigerated can lead to bacterial growth, making it more dangerous, so statement B is accurate. Step 3: Cooking can kill harmful organisms and stop the production of toxins, supporting statement C. Step 4: All three statements are true and collectively provide a comprehensive understanding of food poisoning, making option D the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is an important preventive factor that the nurse should teach a client with rhinitis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: To wash hands frequently. This is important in rhinitis prevention as it helps reduce the spread of viruses and bacteria that can trigger or exacerbate symptoms. Washing hands removes potential allergens and irritants, reducing the risk of rhinitis flare-ups. Choice A is incorrect as blowing the nose is necessary to clear mucus and alleviate symptoms. Choice B is irrelevant to rhinitis prevention. Choice C is not directly related to preventing rhinitis.
Question 3 of 9
Patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome should be closely monitored. Which of the ff. parameters is most important to be checked regularly for acute complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ABG. Monitoring ABG in Guillain-Barre Syndrome patients is crucial as they are at risk for respiratory complications like respiratory failure due to muscle weakness. ABG provides information on oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base balance. Regular monitoring helps detect early signs of respiratory distress and guide appropriate interventions. A: BUN and creatinine are important for assessing renal function, but they do not directly relate to acute complications in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. B: Hgb and Hct are markers for anemia, which is not a common acute complication in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. D: Serum potassium levels are important, but ABG monitoring takes precedence in patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome due to the risk of respiratory issues.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because conducting the interview in a quiet environment, like the waiting area with the television turned off, reduces background noise and distractions for the patient with a hearing deficit. This allows for better communication and understanding. A: Conducting the interview in the patient's room with the door closed may still have distractions or noise from outside the room. C: Conducting the interview in the patient's room before administration of pain medication does not address the issue of reducing background noise for better communication. D: Conducting the interview in the waiting room while the occupational therapist is working on leg exercises introduces additional distractions and noise, making it harder for the patient with a hearing deficit to communicate effectively.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following statements about fluid replacement is accurate for a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in HHNS, the primary goal is to gradually correct dehydration without causing fluid overload. Administering IV fluid slowly helps prevent circulatory overload and collapse. Choice A is incorrect as rapid administration can lead to fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as 6L over 24 hours is excessive and can cause fluid overload. Choice C is incorrect as dextrose solution with normal saline is not the ideal fluid replacement for this condition.
Question 6 of 9
Seven girls were victims of food poisoning after eating the sandwiches served at snack time. Which of the following statement are true regarding food poisoning?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Symptoms of food poisoning typically include salivation, cramping, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, so statement A is correct. Step 2: Food left unrefrigerated can lead to bacterial growth, making it more dangerous, so statement B is accurate. Step 3: Cooking can kill harmful organisms and stop the production of toxins, supporting statement C. Step 4: All three statements are true and collectively provide a comprehensive understanding of food poisoning, making option D the correct answer.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff should the nurse identify as the earliest symptom of heart failure in many older clients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea on exertion. In older clients, dyspnea on exertion is often the earliest symptom of heart failure due to decreased cardiac reserve. This occurs when the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's demands during physical activity. Increased urine output (A) is not typically an early symptom of heart failure. Swollen joints (C) are more indicative of arthritis or inflammation, not necessarily heart failure. Nausea and vomiting (D) are not typical early symptoms of heart failure and are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues.
Question 8 of 9
At the present time, the best treatment for cancer is complete __________ before metastasis occurs:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Surgical removal. Surgical removal of the cancerous tumor is the best treatment before metastasis because it physically removes the cancer cells. Chemotherapy and radiation are used to treat cancer after it has spread, not as the primary treatment. Choice D is incorrect because not all types of cancer can be effectively treated with all three options.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following diets would the nurse include in the plan of care for a person with AIDS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A high-protein, high-calorie diet divided into six small meals. For a person with AIDS, this diet is beneficial to maintain muscle mass, support immune function, and provide energy. High-protein helps in tissue repair, while high-calorie intake helps combat weight loss common in AIDS. Dividing into small frequent meals aids in digestion and absorption. Choice B is incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide enough calories for the increased energy needs of a person with AIDS. Choice C is incorrect because a high-carbohydrate, fat-restricted diet may not provide sufficient protein for muscle maintenance. Choice D is incorrect because a high-fat diet may lead to weight gain and can be harder to digest for someone with compromised immunity.