ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Serum albumin Is to be administered intravenously to client with ascites, The expected outcome of this treatment will be a decrease in:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Abdominal girth. Serum albumin helps to increase oncotic pressure in the blood vessels, reducing fluid leakage into the abdomen and decreasing ascites, leading to a decrease in abdominal girth. Option A is incorrect because serum albumin does not directly affect urinary output. Option B is incorrect as serum albumin does not directly impact serum ammonia levels. Option D is incorrect because while serum albumin can help improve liver function, it does not directly treat hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 2 of 9
In which of the ff clients will an MRI scan be contraindicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with metal implants in their body. An MRI uses strong magnetic fields, which can interact with metal implants, causing movement or heating of the metal and potential harm to the client. This could lead to serious injuries or complications during the scan. Overweight clients (choice A), clients over the age of 60 (choice C), and clients with brain tumors (choice D) do not have contraindications for an MRI scan.
Question 3 of 9
A client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After recovering from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client expresses a desire to learn as much as possible about HIV and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When teaching the client about the immune system, the nurse states that adaptive immunity is provide by which type of white blood cell?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lymphocyte. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in adaptive immunity. They include T cells and B cells, which are responsible for recognizing and attacking specific pathogens. T cells help regulate the immune response and directly attack infected cells, while B cells produce antibodies to target pathogens. Neutrophils (A), monocytes (B), and basophils (C) are important for innate immunity, not adaptive immunity. Neutrophils are phagocytic cells that engulf and destroy pathogens, monocytes differentiate into macrophages to engulf pathogens, and basophils are involved in allergic reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is D because lymphocytes are key players in adaptive immunity.
Question 4 of 9
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. This is the first action the nurse should take because it helps determine the severity of the allergy and how to best proceed with care. By understanding the specific type of reaction the patient experiences, the nurse can implement appropriate precautions and interventions to prevent any adverse reactions during the patient's stay. Choice A is incorrect because placing the patient in isolation is not necessary for a latex allergy. Choice C is incorrect as terminating the interview is premature and does not address the patient's allergy. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the allergy is important but not the first action to take when assessing a patient's allergic reaction.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following risk factors presents the greatest threat for respiratory disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Smoking. Smoking presents the greatest threat for respiratory disease due to the harmful chemicals in tobacco that can damage the lungs and lead to conditions like COPD and lung cancer. Smoking is a well-known risk factor for various respiratory issues. Exposure to radiation (B) can increase cancer risk but is not as directly linked to respiratory diseases. High-fat diet (C) may impact overall health but is not a primary risk factor for respiratory diseases. Alcohol consumption (D) can contribute to respiratory issues, but smoking is considered the most significant risk factor.
Question 6 of 9
A patient returns from surgery ff. a TURP with a three-way Foley catheter and continuous bladder irrigation. Postoperative orders include Meperidine (Demerol) 75 mg IM q3h as needed for pain, belladonna and opium (B&O) suppository q4h as needed, and strict I&O. the patient complains of painful bladder spasms, and the nurse observes blood-tinged urine on the sheets. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to notify the physician stat (choice D). Firstly, the patient presents with painful bladder spasms and blood-tinged urine, indicating a potential complication post-TURP. This warrants immediate medical attention to assess for possible bladder injury or hemorrhage. Giving Demerol (choice A) or B&O suppository (choice B) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue. Warming the irrigation solution (choice C) is not a priority in this situation and does not address the potential serious complications. Notifying the physician immediately allows for prompt evaluation and appropriate intervention to address the patient's condition effectively.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse adds a nursing diagnosis to a patient’s care plan. Which information did the nurse document?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it follows the correct format of a nursing diagnosis: "Problem related to Etiology." In this case, "Decreased cardiac output" is the problem, and "altered myocardial contractility" is the cause. This format helps identify the specific issue and its underlying cause, allowing for targeted interventions. Choice B is incorrect as it doesn't follow the problem-etiology format and lacks specificity. Choice C is also incorrect as it lacks a clear nursing diagnosis and specific etiology. Choice D is incorrect as it presents a symptom rather than a nursing diagnosis with an associated cause. Overall, choice A is the best option as it provides a clear, specific nursing diagnosis that guides appropriate nursing interventions.
Question 8 of 9
A client with Addison’s disease comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. When assessing this client, the nurse should stay alert for signs and symptoms of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone. This leads to sodium and potassium imbalances. Low aldosterone causes sodium loss and potassium retention, resulting in sodium and potassium abnormalities. The other choices, A, B, and C, do not directly relate to Addison's disease. Calcium and phosphorus abnormalities are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Sodium and chloride, and chloride and magnesium imbalances are not primary concerns in Addison's disease. Therefore, staying alert for signs and symptoms of sodium and potassium abnormalities is crucial in managing and monitoring a client with Addison's disease.
Question 9 of 9
Which virus causes genital warts?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the virus that causes genital warts. It is transmitted through sexual contact and is the most common sexually transmitted infection. Cytomegalovirus (A) does not cause genital warts. Herpes simplex virus type II (C) causes genital herpes, not warts. Human immunodeficiency virus (D) causes AIDS and weakens the immune system but does not directly cause genital warts.