ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Sensitivity is the ability of a screening test to accurately identify what aspect of the screening?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Persons who have the disease. Sensitivity measures how well a test correctly identifies individuals who have the disease (true positives). It is essential in determining the test's ability to detect the presence of the disease accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sensitivity focuses on correctly identifying individuals who have the disease, not those with symptoms, those without the disease, or those with a diagnosis of the disease.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is conducting an admission assessment for a newly admitted patient. What aspect of cultural competence should the nurse prioritize during the assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Asking the patient about their cultural background and preferences shows respect for their individuality and acknowledges the importance of cultural competence in providing person-centered care. 2. It allows the nurse to gain valuable insights into the patient's beliefs, values, and practices, enabling them to deliver culturally appropriate care. 3. By prioritizing this aspect, the nurse can establish rapport, build trust, and enhance communication with the patient, leading to better outcomes. 4. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either involve assumptions, avoidance, or disregard for the patient's cultural background, which can lead to misunderstandings, discomfort, and ineffective care.
Question 3 of 9
In her recommendation, Nurse Gina stated, elderly should be given independence. This means ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because independence for the elderly means they have the freedom to make choices and decisions about their own lives. This empowers them to live according to their preferences and values. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't consider individual circumstances; choice B is important but doesn't capture the essence of independence; choice D is too broad and doesn't specifically address the concept of personal autonomy and agency for the elderly.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. SSRI medications can lead to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), causing hyponatremia. This occurs due to increased levels of serotonin affecting the hypothalamus, leading to excessive ADH release. Hyponatremia can result in neurological symptoms and must be closely monitored. A: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with SSRIs. D: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs; they may actually lower blood pressure.
Question 5 of 9
Nurse Rica, would like to start a conversation, which comunication technique she should use?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Broad opening. Nurse Rica should use this communication technique to encourage the patient to freely express themselves without leading or interrupting. This technique helps build rapport and trust, setting a positive tone for the conversation. A: Clarifying may be too direct and might make the patient feel pressured. B: Challenging can create defensiveness and hinder open communication. C: Restating may not be as effective in initiating a conversation as broad opening. In summary, broad opening allows for a more open and relaxed conversation, fostering a conducive environment for effective communication with the patient.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is an example of a PRIMARY) source in a research study?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a journal article about a study using large, previously unpublished databases is a primary source as it presents original research findings firsthand. It contributes new knowledge to the field. A textbook (A) compiles existing information, not original research. A doctoral dissertation (B) critiques research but is not a primary source. A published commentary (C) interprets others' findings, making it a secondary source.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inductive process. Qualitative research typically involves an inductive approach, where researchers gather data, analyze patterns, and develop theories or hypotheses based on the observed data. This allows for exploration and discovery of new insights. A) Deductive process is not a characteristic of qualitative research, as deductive reasoning involves starting with a hypothesis and testing it with data. B) Fixed research design is not common in qualitative research, which often uses flexible and adaptive designs to accommodate emergent findings. C) Control over the context is not a key characteristic of qualitative research, as it often involves studying real-world settings with natural contexts rather than controlled environments. In summary, the inductive process is a key characteristic of qualitative research as it allows for exploration and theory development based on observed data, distinguishing it from deductive approaches, fixed designs, and controlled contexts.
Question 8 of 9
To begin your discussion, you explain to her that the endocrine glands include, which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it includes all the major endocrine glands: pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenals, pancreatic islets, and hypothalamus. The pituitary gland is known as the "master gland" as it controls other endocrine glands. The thyroid gland regulates metabolism, while the parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels. The adrenal glands produce hormones involved in stress response. Pancreatic islets produce insulin and glucagon. The hypothalamus plays a key role in hormone regulation. Choice B is incorrect because it includes ovaries and testes, which are not endocrine glands. Choice C is incorrect because it omits the hypothalamus. Choice D is incorrect because it includes ovaries and testes which are not endocrine glands.
Question 9 of 9
Norse Sophie checks the gauge of the patient ' s intravenous catheter. Which is the smallest gauge catheter that the nurse can use to administer blood?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20-Gauge. The smaller the gauge number, the larger the diameter of the catheter. Blood transfusions typically require a larger catheter size to prevent hemolysis and ensure proper flow. A 20-Gauge catheter is larger than 22-Gauge, 18-Gauge, and 12-Gauge, making it suitable for administering blood. 22-Gauge is too small and can cause hemolysis, 18-Gauge is smaller than the recommended size for blood transfusions, and 12-Gauge is too large and can cause damage to the vein.