ATI RN
Human Reproductive System pdf NCERT Questions
Question 1 of 5
Sella turcica is a __________ in the sphenoid bone in which
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Depression. Sella turcica is a saddle-shaped depression in the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland. It is not a groove (B) as it is a deeper concavity. It is not a projection (C) as it is a recessed area rather than a raised structure. It is not a foramen (A) as it is a hollowed-out area rather than a small opening. Therefore, the most accurate description of sella turcica is a depression in the sphenoid bone.
Question 2 of 5
Female infertility can be caused by hormonal problems, blocked fallopian tubes, and
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: STDs. Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) which can cause scarring and blockage of the fallopian tubes, leading to female infertility. STDs such as chlamydia and gonorrhea can also cause damage to the reproductive organs, affecting fertility. Therefore, STDs are a significant factor contributing to female infertility. A: A cold is a common viral infection that does not directly impact female fertility. B: Lack of appetite is not a known cause of female infertility. C: Irregular menstrual cycles can be a symptom of hormonal imbalances but may not directly lead to infertility.
Question 3 of 5
The main structures in erectile tissue responsible for maintaining an erection are the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: helicine arteries. Helicine arteries are the main structures in erectile tissue responsible for maintaining an erection. They dilate in response to signals from the nervous system, allowing increased blood flow into the penis, leading to an erection. Pacinian corpuscles (A) are sensory receptors for touch and pressure, not involved in erectile function. Peripheral nerves (B) transmit signals between the brain and the penis but are not directly responsible for maintaining an erection. Acrosome phase (D) is a term related to sperm structure and not relevant to erectile tissue function.
Question 4 of 5
Your 30 year old female patient is c/o bad-smelling vaginal discharge with mild itching for about 3 weeks. Douching did not help. Denies painful urination or intercourse. She noticed the smell increased after intercourse and during her period last week. There are no lesions on the perineum. No lymphadenopathy. On speculum examination, there is a thin gray-white discharge. The pH of the discharge is over 4.5 and there is a fishy odor when potassium hydroxide (KOH) is applied to the vaginal secretions on the slide. Wet prep shows epithelial cells with stippled border (clue cells). What type of vaginitis best describes the findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacterial vaginosis. The key findings in this scenario point towards bacterial vaginosis. The presence of thin gray-white discharge, fishy odor with KOH, pH over 4.5, and clue cells on wet prep are classic for bacterial vaginosis. Trichomonas vaginitis (choice A) typically presents with yellow-green frothy discharge and motile trichomonads on microscopy. Candida vaginitis (choice B) is characterized by thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge and budding yeast or pseudohyphae on microscopy. Atrophic vaginitis (choice D) usually occurs in menopausal women due to estrogen deficiency and presents with thin, pale vaginal walls and vaginal dryness. In this case, the absence of these findings makes bacterial vaginosis the most likely diagnosis.
Question 5 of 5
Seven days after ovulation, pituitary secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) decreases rapidly. What is the cause of this decrease in secretion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: After ovulation, the follicle transforms into the corpus luteum. Step 2: The corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone. Step 3: Estrogen and progesterone exert negative feedback on the hypothalamus. Step 4: This inhibits the secretion of GnRH from the hypothalamus. Step 5: Decreased GnRH leads to reduced LH secretion from the pituitary. Therefore, the correct answer is D because the secretion of estrogen and progesterone by the corpus luteum suppresses the hypothalamic secretion of GnRH, resulting in decreased pituitary LH secretion. Summary: A: Incorrect. The anterior pituitary gland's responsiveness to GnRH is not the cause of the decrease in LH secretion. B: Incorrect. Estrogen exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus, not the pituitary. C: Incorrect. Rise in body temperature does not directly inhibit GnRH secretion