ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Select the medication that should be discussed by the nurse with the attending physician before administering it to patient with acute angle closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atropine. Atropine is a mydriatic agent that can exacerbate acute angle closure glaucoma by dilating the pupil and potentially worsening the condition. The nurse should discuss with the attending physician before administering it to avoid worsening the patient's condition. A: Isopto carpine eye drops are actually used in the treatment of acute angle closure glaucoma as they help in lowering intraocular pressure, so there is no need to discuss this with the physician. B: Mannitol is used as an osmotic diuretic to reduce intraocular pressure in acute angle closure glaucoma, and it does not directly affect the pupil, so it does not require discussion with the physician before administration. C: Corticosporin ophthalmic is a combination of an antibiotic and a corticosteroid used to treat eye infections and inflammation, but it does not have a direct effect on worsening acute angle closure glaucoma, so it does
Question 2 of 9
A patient is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. SSRI medications can lead to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), causing hyponatremia. This occurs due to increased levels of serotonin affecting the hypothalamus, leading to excessive ADH release. Hyponatremia can result in neurological symptoms and must be closely monitored. A: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with SSRIs. D: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs; they may actually lower blood pressure.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. On examination, there is nuchal rigidity and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meningitis. The patient's symptoms of severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, nuchal rigidity, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs are classic signs of meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord, leading to these specific neurological symptoms. Migraine headache (A) typically presents with a throbbing headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Cluster headache (B) is characterized by severe unilateral headache with autonomic symptoms like tearing or nasal congestion, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (D) presents with sudden severe headache often described as "the worst headache of my life," and may cause neck stiffness, but typically does not present with photophobia or positive meningeal signs like Kernig and Brudzinski signs.
Question 4 of 9
A biphasic anti-ovulatory medication of combined progestin and estrogen is prescribed for a female patient. What should the nurse include when teaching about this oral contraceptive?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any irregular vaginal bleeding. This is important because irregular vaginal bleeding can indicate potential issues such as breakthrough bleeding or hormonal imbalances, which may require adjustments to the contraceptive regimen. Other choices are incorrect because: A) Restricting sexual activity is not necessary with this medication, C) Increasing calcium intake is not directly related to taking biphasic anti-ovulatory medication, and D) Bi-monthly Pap smears are not specifically required due to this type of contraception.
Question 5 of 9
A woman in active labor demonstrates signs of uterine inertia, with weak and irregular contractions contributing to slow cervical dilation. What nursing intervention should be implemented to address this abnormal labor pattern?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In cases of uterine inertia, where weak and irregular contractions are causing slow cervical dilation during labor, administering intravenous oxytocin can help augment contractions and stimulate more effective progress. Oxytocin is a hormone that naturally stimulates uterine contractions and is commonly used in clinical settings to induce or enhance labor. By increasing the strength and frequency of contractions, oxytocin can help address uterine inertia and promote efficient cervical dilation to facilitate the progress of labor. It is important to monitor the response to oxytocin carefully to avoid complications such as hyperstimulation of the uterus, which can lead to fetal distress.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with chronic bronchitis presents with chronic cough, sputum production, and exertional dyspnea. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing the patient's symptoms and improving quality of life?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchodilator therapy. Bronchodilators help to relax and open up the airways, which can improve airflow and reduce symptoms such as cough, sputum production, and dyspnea in patients with chronic bronchitis. This intervention can help manage the patient's symptoms and improve their quality of life by making it easier for them to breathe. A: Smoking cessation counseling is important for overall management of chronic bronchitis, but it does not directly address the patient's current symptoms. B: Oral antibiotic therapy may be indicated if there is evidence of a bacterial infection, but it is not the first-line treatment for managing chronic bronchitis symptoms. C: Home oxygen therapy may be necessary for patients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not typically the first intervention for managing symptoms of chronic bronchitis without evidence of significant oxygen desaturation.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, resulting in heel pain that is typically worse with the first steps in the morning?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Plantar fasciitis is the correct answer. It is characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, leading to heel pain, especially in the morning. The plantar fascia is a band of tissue that connects the heel bone to the toes. The pain is usually worse with the first steps after resting. Achilles tendinitis involves inflammation of the Achilles tendon, which connects the calf muscles to the heel bone, causing pain at the back of the heel and ankle. Morton's neuroma is a condition involving a thickening of tissue around a nerve in the ball of the foot, leading to sharp, burning pain in the toes. Stress fracture of the calcaneus refers to a small crack in the heel bone due to repetitive stress or overuse, resulting in heel pain that may worsen with activity, but not specifically with the first steps in the morning.
Question 8 of 9
The physician prescribes decongestant intranasal spray. The nurse instructs the client on the proper use of the spray. Which of the following procedures is the CORRECT method?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tilt the head slightly forward and angle the bottle toward the side of the nostril. This method allows for proper administration of the spray into the nasal passage, ensuring effective delivery of the medication. Tilted head helps direct the spray towards the nasal cavity without causing discomfort or leakage. It also helps prevent the medication from dripping down the back of the throat. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Finishing instillation in one nostril before moving to the other can lead to uneven distribution of medication and reduced effectiveness. B: Inhaling quickly may cause irritation and discomfort to the mucous membranes due to the forceful intake of the spray. C: Blowing the nose after spraying can expel the medication before it has a chance to be absorbed, decreasing its efficacy.
Question 9 of 9
In providing tracheostomy care which of the following is the nurse's PRIORITY nursing action? The nurse ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secures clean ties before removing soiled ones. This is the priority action because securing clean ties prevents accidental dislodgement of the tracheostomy tube, ensuring the patient's airway remains patent. Cutting the dressing (A) or cleaning the incisions (B) can be important but not as critical as securing the tube. Using clean technique (D) is essential but not the priority in this situation.