Select the compound which used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women serves the purpose of both estrogen and progestin with weak androgenic activity:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Tibolone is a compound used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women. 2. Tibolone serves the purpose of both estrogen and progestin. 3. It has weak androgenic activity, making it suitable for menopausal symptoms. 4. Mestranol is an estrogen-only compound, not suitable for progestin effects. 5. Desogestrel and Gestodene are progestins but do not have estrogenic properties. In summary, Tibolone is the correct choice as it combines estrogen and progestin with weak androgenic activity, unlike the other options.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because parathormone receptors are expressed on the surface of osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and gut mucosal cells. Parathormone regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the body, influencing bone metabolism and intestinal absorption. Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells, osteoclasts are bone-resorbing cells, and gut mucosal cells are involved in calcium absorption. Therefore, parathormone receptors are present on all three cell types to coordinate calcium homeostasis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because parathormone receptors are not exclusive to any one cell type but are present on all three mentioned in the question.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Intravenous calcium gluconate. Tetany is caused by low levels of calcium in the blood. Calcium gluconate is the appropriate treatment as it quickly and effectively raises blood calcium levels. Diazepam (A) is a muscle relaxant, vitamin D (B) is used for bone health, and calcitonin (D) is used to regulate calcium and phosphate levels in the body, but they are not the primary treatment for tetany.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (1-2 months) because fertility typically returns quickly after stopping the combined estrogen-progestin contraceptive pill. Estrogen and progestin hormones are quickly metabolized and cleared from the body, allowing the menstrual cycle to resume within a month or two. Choice B (4-6 months) is incorrect as fertility usually returns sooner. Choice C (6-12 months) is also incorrect as it is an extended timeframe for fertility to return. Choice D (Uncertain period) is incorrect as there is a general understanding of the timeline for fertility to return after stopping the pill.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Long acting progestin. Injectable hormonal contraceptives typically contain progestin alone, as it suppresses ovulation and thickens cervical mucus. Estrogen is not commonly used in injectable contraceptives due to its higher risk of side effects like blood clots. Chorionic gonadotropin is not a component of injectable contraceptives and is typically used in fertility treatments. Therefore, choice A is correct as it aligns with the mechanism of action and formulation of injectable hormonal contraceptives.