Select all that apply. Characteristics of the 2 main types of essential fatty acids discussed in class include:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'they must be supplied by the diet.' Essential fatty acids, like omega-3 and omega-6, cannot be produced by the body and must be obtained through the diet. They are polyunsaturated fatty acids, playing vital roles in inflammation and cell membrane structure. Choice B is incorrect because essential fatty acids cannot be produced by dehydrogenation, a process of removing hydrogen. Choice C is incorrect as not all essential fatty acids are anti-inflammatory; some have pro-inflammatory roles. Choice D is incorrect because not all essential fatty acids are polyunsaturated; omega-9, for example, is a monounsaturated essential fatty acid.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A low-fiber diet is generally recommended for individuals who need to restrict their intake of dietary fiber for health reasons. Ripe bananas are low in fiber and easy to digest, making them an ideal choice for a low-fiber diet. On the other hand, broccoli, onions, and whole-grain bread are high in fiber. Therefore, they are less suitable for a low-fiber diet as they could cause digestive discomfort or exacerbate certain health conditions. Ripe bananas, being low in fiber, are the most appropriate choice for a low-fiber diet.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is known for a variety of oral manifestations such as oral candidiasis, hairy leukoplakia, herpetic ulcerations, Kaposi's sarcoma, xerostomia, and severe periodontal disease. These symptoms are not typically associated with acute leukemia, anorexia nervosa, or bulimia. Acute leukemia usually presents with symptoms like fatigue, frequent infections, and easy bruising. Anorexia nervosa and bulimia are eating disorders, thus their primary symptoms are primarily associated with eating habits and body weight, not oral health.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cariogenic foods and beverages lower the pH level in the mouth to below 5.5. This is a critical threshold, as it is the point at which enamel begins to demineralize, increasing the risk of dental caries. Therefore, options 'A', 'C', and 'D' are incorrect. Although a pH level of 5, as suggested by option 'A', would indeed lead to demineralization, it's not the threshold value. The pH levels suggested by options 'C' and 'D' (6 and 6.5, respectively) are higher than the critical value of 5.5, which means they would not initiate enamel demineralization and the subsequent risk of dental caries.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In both gestational diabetes and Type II diabetes, the body's cells become resistant to insulin, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. Insulin resistance in these types of diabetes prevents glucose from entering the cells, causing it to accumulate in the bloodstream. On the other hand, Type I diabetes is characterized by the body's inability to produce insulin because the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. Therefore, the correct answer is both A and B. Choice C, Type I diabetes, is not characterized by insulin resistance but rather by the body's inability to produce insulin. Therefore, it is incorrect. Choice D, Both A and B, includes the correct options of gestational diabetes and Type II diabetes, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: quit smoking. Smoking lowers HDL levels, so quitting smoking is crucial to raising HDL levels. Increasing dietary sodium (choice B) is not linked to raising HDL levels and can have negative effects on cardiovascular health. Taking iron supplements (choice C) is not directly related to increasing HDL levels. Avoiding dairy products (choice D) is not necessary to raise HDL levels; in fact, some dairy products like low-fat options can be part of a heart-healthy diet.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Both statements are true. The health history aims to uncover health-related factors that could pose nutritional risks, including medications like prednisone that may have interactions affecting nutrient requirements. Choice B is incorrect as both statements are accurate, emphasizing the significance of health history in assessing nutritional concerns.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are a type of antisecretory drug that can cause nausea and vomiting by altering stomach acid production. These are common side effects associated with PPIs. Gastroparesis (B) is a condition that affects the stomach muscles and prevents proper stomach emptying; it is not a side effect of PPIs. Dumping syndrome (C) is a group of symptoms that can occur after having part of your stomach removed and is not a side effect of PPIs. While some people might experience flatulence (D) when taking PPIs, it is not as commonly associated with these drugs as the effects of nausea and vomiting.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The placenta plays a crucial role in producing hormones that are necessary for maintaining pregnancy, supporting fetal development, and preparing the mother's body for childbirth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the placenta's primary function is not to surround and cushion the fetus, combine blood stores for nutrient exchange, or absorb vitamins and minerals. While the placenta does facilitate the exchange of nutrients and oxygen between the mother and fetus, its hormone production is the most critical function during pregnancy.