Select a hypnotic drug which is a benzodiazepine derivative:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flurazepam. Flurazepam is a benzodiazepine derivative because it contains a benzodiazepine ring structure in its chemical composition. Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used as hypnotics due to their sedative and hypnotic effects. Zolpidem (A) is a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic drug, while Secobarbital (C) and Phenobarbitone (D) are barbiturates, not benzodiazepines. Benzodiazepines are preferred over barbiturates for hypnotic use due to their lower risk of respiratory depression and overdose.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Carbidopa is a peripheral dopa decarboxylase inhibitor. It does not cross the blood-brain barrier and prevents the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the periphery, increasing levodopa availability in the brain. Tolcapone and Selegiline are central nervous system dopaminergic agents. Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Morphine is the correct choice because it is a potent opioid that acts as a vasodilator and reduces preload and afterload, making it beneficial in acute pulmonary edema by improving oxygenation and reducing anxiety. Codeine is a weaker opioid and not as effective in managing acute pulmonary edema. Fentanyl is a potent opioid but lacks the vasodilator effects of morphine. Loperamide is an opioid used for diarrhea and has no role in treating acute pulmonary edema.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Antipsychotic drugs primarily act by blocking dopamine receptors, especially D2 receptors. Step 2: Blocking D2 receptors reduces dopamine activity, helping control psychotic symptoms. Step 3: Option A is correct as antipsychotics strongly block postsynaptic D2 receptors. Summary: - B is incorrect as stimulating D2 receptors would worsen psychotic symptoms. - C is incorrect as antipsychotics do not typically block NMDA receptors. - D is incorrect as antipsychotics primarily target dopamine receptors, not 5-HT2 receptors.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Irreversible MAO inhibitors can lead to hypertensive reactions due to tyramine buildup from food. MAO breaks down tyramine, so inhibition leads to excess tyramine causing dangerous spikes in blood pressure. Respiratory depression (A) and agranulocytosis (D) are not typically associated with MAO inhibitors. While cardiovascular collapse and CNS depression (B) can occur, the high risk is specifically for hypertensive crises due to tyramine interactions.